Saturday, 3 August 2019

GRD101 Graphic Designing Digiskills Video Lectures All in One | SSWT

Dear students in this course you will learn Graphic Designing (GRD).

👉 For more information please visit: Digiskills GRD101 course details

Friday, 2 August 2019

CS604 Operating Systems Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 FinalTerm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS604 OPERATING SYSTEMS QUIZ MCQS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

CS604-Operating Systems Quiz #Objective #Questions #FinalTerm

1. Assume a logical address space of 16 pages of 1024 words, each mapped into a physical memory of 32 frames, Each word consists of 2 bytes. What will be the total number of bits required for p (page number)?
  • 4 bits ✔
  • 8 bits
  • 16 bits
  • 32 bits
2. ___ algorithm is used in Deadlock avoidance.
  • Bakery
  • Banker's
  • Mutual exclusion
  • Safe Sequence ✔
3. Assume a logical address space of 16 pages of  1024 words, each mapped into a physical memory of 32 frames. Each word consists of 2 bytes. What will be the total number of bits required for f (frames)?
  • 5 ✔
  • 6
  • 7
  • 8
4. Access of variable Semaphore is possible only through two atomic operation ___ and ___.
  • TestAndSet, Swap
  • Lock, key
  • Boolean, integer
  • Wait, signal ✔
5. If a system is not in a safe state, there can be NO deadlocks.
  • True
  • False ✔
6. Address binding will be ___ in Multiprogramming with Variable Tasks (MVT)
  • Dynamic ✔
  • Static
  • Variable
  • Fixed
7. The ___ requires that one a writer is ready, that the writer performs its write as soon as possible. In other words, if a writer is waiting to access the object, no new readers may start reading.
  • first readers-writers problem
  • second readers-writers problem ✔
  • third readers-writers problem
  • fourth readers-writers problem
8. In ___ technique, memory is divided into several fixed-size partitions.
  • Swapping
  • Overlays
  • Multiprogramming with Fixed Tasks (MFT) ✔
  • Multiprogramming with Variable Tasks (MVT)
9. The problem of deadlocks can be solved by ___ method(s).
  • Deadlock prevention
  • Deadlock avoidance
  • Allowing deadlock to occur, then detect and recover
  • All of the given ✔
10. ___ is caused due to un-used space in fixed-size blocks/pages.
  • Internal fragmentation ✔
  • External fragmentation
  • Paging
  • MVT
11. It is not possible to run a program whose size is greater than the size of the main memory.
  • True
  • False 
12. How does a logical-address space is represented?
  • Through Critical section
  • Through segments
13. ___ is the separation of user logical memory from physical memory.
  • ROM
  • Physical memory
  • Virtual memory
  • None
14. A ___ system is similar to paging system with swapping.
  • Context switching
  • Demand paging
  • Page fault
  • None
15. Each page is a power of ___ bytes long in paging scheme.
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
16. Segmentation is a memory management scheme that supports ___?
  • Programmer's view memory
  • System's view of memory
  • Hardware view of memory
  • None
17. ___ keep in memory only those instructions and data that are needed at any given time.
  • Fragmentation
  • Paging
  • Swapping
  • Overlays
18. The collection of processes that is waiting on the disk to be bought into the memory for execution forms the ___
  • Input queue
  • Output queue
  • Both input and output queue
  • None
19. Following schemes allow efficient implementations of page tables EXCEPT
  • Hashed Page Table
  • Hierarchical/Multilevel Paging
  • Inverted Page Table
  • Binary Page Table
20. Overlays are implemented by the ___
  • Operating system
  • Programmer
  • Kernel
  • Shell
21. A page table needed for keeping track of pages of the page table is called ___
  • 2-level paging
  • Page Directory
  • Page size
  • Page table size
22. The segment table maps the ___ to physical addresses.
  • Page addresses
  • Shared page addresses
  • One-dimensional logical addresses
  • Two-dimensional logical addresses
23. What do we name to an address that is generated by the CPU?
  • Logical address
  • Physical address
  • Binary address
  • None
24. Intel is basically designed for following Operating Systems except ___
  • MULTICS
  • OS/2
  • Windows
  • Linux
25. ___ holds the smallest legal physical memory address for a process.
  • Base register
  • Limit register
  • Index register
  • Stack pointers register
26. ___ register contains the size of the process.
  • Base register
  • Index register
  • Limit register
  • Stack pointers register
27. Intel 80386 used paged segmentation with ___ level paging.
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • Four
28. In pages segmentation, the logical addresses is legal if d is ___ segment length.
  • Less than
  • Greater than
  • Equal to
  • Greater than or equal to

CS506 Web Design & Development Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 MidTerm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS506 Web Design and Development MCQS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

CS506-Web Design & Development Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. JDBC-ODBC stands for ___
  • Java Database Connectivity-Oracle Database Connectivity
  • Java Database Corporation-Open Database Corporation
  • Java Database Corporation-Oracle Database Corporation
  • Java Database Connectivity-Open Database Connectivity ✔
2. Which of the following operator is used to concatenate strings?
  • +=
  • +-
  • ++
  • + ✔
3. Which of the following feature does java provide?
  • Operator Overloading
  • Pointers
  • Overriding ✔
  • Multiple Inheritance
4. The following is an example of :
BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(fr);
  • Byte-Oriented Stream
  • Node Stream
  • Filter Stream ✔
  • File Stream
5. Which of the following method is used to convert a string into an int value?
  • intValue()
  • parseInt()
  • ParseInt()
  • parseInteger() ✔
6. If there is no exception in the try block then the catch block ___ executes.
  • Always
  • Somtime
  • Never ✔
  • None
7. Java Program code is compiled into a form called ___
  • Machine code
  • Byte code ✔
  • Native code
  • Source code
8. Which of the following feature is not included in java?
  • Inheritance
  • Polymorphism
  • Pointer manipulation ✔
  • Data encapsulation
9. Which one of the following understands the byte code?
  • Operating System
  • Java Compiler
  • Java Virtual Machine ✔
  • Java Interpreter
10. Adapter classes have been defined for listener interfaces except ___ interface.
  • MouseListener
  • KeyListener
  • WindowListener
  • ActionListener ✔
11. == operator compares ___ of strings whereas equals( ) method compares ___ of strings
  • Values, addresses
  • Addresses, values
  • Size, addresses
  • Addresses, size
12. Event handling is a ___ step process
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • Four
13. Window, frame, and dialog use ___ as their default layout.
  • Border Layout
  • Flow layout
  • GridBag layout
  • Grid layout
14. Which of the following belongs to a category of checked exception?
  • Null Pointer exception
  • IOException
  • Array index out of bounds
  • NumberFormatException
15. All the exceptions and errors in java are inherited from ___ class.
  • Exception
  • Error
  • Throwable
  • IOException
16. If a superclass method is protected then the overriding method ___
  • must be protected
  • must be public
  • must be private
  • may be either protected or public
17. Which of the following syntax attaches an output stream to console?
  • FileWriter fw = new FileWriter("output.txt");
  • FileWriter fw = new FileWriter(FileDescriptor.out);
  • FileWriter fw = new FileWriter(FileDescriptor.in);
  • FileWriter fw = new FileWriter(FileDescriptor);
18. Which of the following command is used to compile Java code?
  • java filename
  • java filename.java
  • javac filename
  • javac filename.java
19. AWT is a GUI package used in java, AWT stands for ___
  • Apache Window Toolkit
  • Application Windowing Tools
  • Application Windows Template
  • Abstract Windowing Toolkit
20. Java defines ___ for the listener interfaces having more than one event handling methods.
  • Wrapper classes
  • Abstract classes
  • Concrete classes
  • Adapter classes
21. Mouse events can be trapped for ___ GUI component.
  • JPanel
  • JFrame
  • JButton
  • All of the given
22. Which of the following statement object is used to execute stored procedures?
  • Statement
  • PreparedStatement
  • CallableStatement
  • None
23. Which of the following statement object is used to execute precompiled SQL statements?
  • Statement
  • PreparedStatement
  • CallableStatement
  • None of the given
24. Which of the following method is used to determine whether a database is read-only or not?
  • isReadonly()
  • isReadOnly()
  • isreadonly()
  • IsReadOnly()
25. ___components generate events.
  • Only AWT
  • Only Swing
  • All AWT and Swing
  • Not all AWT and Swing
26. Which of the following function will be used to register an event handler with events generator, where the event generator is a button?
  • addAction()
  • addActionListener()
  • addListener()
  • registerListener()
27. Which of the following syntax is used to get DataBaseMetaData object?
  • DataBaseMetaData md = rs.getMetaData(); //where rs is ResultSet object
  • DatabaseMetaData md = st.getMetaData(); //where st is Statement object
  • DataBaseMetaData md = con.getMetaData(); //where con is Connection object
  • DataBaseMetaData md = rsmd.getMetaData(); //where rsmd is ResultSetMetaData object
28. Which of the given Listener interface(s) have adopter class(s)?
  • ActionListener
  • AdjustmentListener
  • MouseMotionListener
  • ItemListener
29. There are ___steps in order to communicate successfully with database
  • six
  • seven
  • eight
  • nine
30. An event in java is represented as ___
  • Operator
  • Function
  • Object
  • Primitive data type
31. Which of the given statement objects are used to execute using same query multiple times by only changing parameters?
  • Statement
  • CallableStatement
  • PreparedStatement
  • Both b and c
32. Which of the following function is declared in MouseMotionListener interface?
  • public void mousePressed(MouseEvent me);
  • public void mouseDragged(MouseEvent me);
  • public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent me);
  • public void mouseEntered(MouseEvent me);
33. DSN stands for ___
  • Data System Name
  • Domain system Name
  • Data Source Name
  • Database System Name
34. Which of the following is a DDL statement?
  • Select
  • Delete
  • Create
  • Update

Thursday, 1 August 2019

CS605 Software Engineering Part 2 Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-33 Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS605 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING 2 OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

CS605-Software Engineering Quiz #Objective #Questions

1. FTR stands for:
  • Feasibility of technical requirement
  • Fetched Technical Requirement
  • Formal Technical Review ✔
  • None
2. Configuration Auditing deals with:
  • Ensuring that Resources have been allocated properly.
  • Ensuring that changes are implemented parallel with SDLC framework activities.
  • Ensuring that the changes have been implemented properly ✔
  • All of the given
3. Poka-Yoke is the name of a:
  • QA technique ✔
  • Japanese dish
  • Idiom
  • None
4. Quality cost may be divided into costs associated with:
  • Prevention, appraisal, and failure ✔
  • Customers, developers, and maintenance
  • Builds, releases, and products
  • Bugs, errors, and Reports
5. If an error related to requirements is identified in the testing phase, this error will be considered as an error of ___
  • Requirement ✔
  • Design
  • Code
  • Testing
6. In order to use the PERT and CPM, which one of the followings is NOT required?
  • Decomposition of tasks-also known as the work breakdown structure (WBS).
  • Teams communication mode details. ✔
  • Estimation of effort.
  • Interdependencies.
7. if:
E = Errors found before shipment
D = Errors found during shipment
Then Defect Removal Efficiency (DRE) is equal to:
  • DRE = E + (E+D)
  • DRE = E - (E+D)
  • DRE = E * (E+D)
  • DRE = E / (E+D) ✔
8. Following are effective guidelines for Review EXCEPT:
  • We need to review the product, not the producer
  • Be sensitive to personal egos
  • Errors should be pointed out gently
  • The tone should be high and strict ✔
9. The basic idea behind Software configuration management is:
  • To manage and control the change ✔
  • To efficiently allocate the resources
  • To properly manage status reporting
  • None
10. Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a ___ technique for assessing the progress of a project.
  • Qualitative
  • Quantitative ✔
  • Subjective
  • None

MGT602 Entrepreneurship Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-39 Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

MGT602 ENTREPRENEURSHIP OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 

MGT602-Entrepreneurship Quiz #Objective #Questions

1. Which of the following is true for the small business innovation act?
  • It requires federal agencies with R&D budgets over $100 million.
  • It provides a uniform method for selecting worthy research proposals.
  • It provides funds to entrepreneurs through the SBIR grant program.
  • All of the given. ✔
2. No capital stock tax is an advantage of ___
  • Proprietorship ✔
  • Limited liability company
  • Corporation
  • S corporation
3. Which of the following is independently owned and operated and not dominant in its field of operation?
  • Diversified Organization
  • International Business
  • Small Business
  • Entrepreneurship ✔
4. All of the following are the asset bases for loans EXCEPT:
  • Accounts receivable
  • Inventory ✔
  • Installment 
  • Equipment
5. Which of the following form of business has two or more individuals with unlimited liability who have pooled resource to own a business?
  • Proprietorship
  • Partnership ✔
  • Corporation
  • S corporation
6. In which of the following forms the death of owner dissolves the business?
  • Proprietorship ✔
  • LLC
  • Corporation
  • S Corporation
7. Discovery of a market niche within an existing market will pop business ___ for existing entrepreneurs.
  • Opportunities ✔
  • Threats
  • Strengths
  • Weakness
8. Which of the following is the previous name of SME?
  • SPCC
  • SMEDA
  • SBFC
  • FMBC
9. "Self-motivated and result oriented individuals with PC knowledge, excellent spoken and written English and three to four years practical experience of market research" This selection of job advertisement represents which of the following term?
  • Job analysis
  • Jop Description ✔
  • Job specification
  • Job evaluation
10. Which one of the following is the systematic assembly of all facts about a job?
  • Job Specification ✔
  • Job Description
  • Job Identification
  • Job Analysis
11. Which of the following is NOT  a characteristic of question designed for questionnaire?
  • It should be clear
  • It should be concise
  • It should be easy to answer ✔
  • It should be technical
12. Which of the following form retains the legal characteristics of a regular corporation but has the advantage of being taxed as a partnership?
  • Proprietorship
  • Limited liability company
  • Corporation
  • S corporation
13. All of the following are the functions served by a board of directors Except:
  • Reviewing operating and capital budget
  • Developing long term strategic plans for growth and expansion
  • Resolving conflicts among owners or shareholders
  • Select candidates who will show good judgment in business decision making 
14. Data collected from different companies' websites is an example of:
  • Secondary data
  • Primary data
  • Commercial data
  • All of the given
15. Organizational hierarchy and ownership information are included in:
  • Organizational planning
  • Operational planning
  • Marketing planning
  • Financial planning
16. Which of the following is the process of gathering of data in order to determine the information as who will buy the product, what price should be charged and what is the most effective promotion strategy?
  • Marketing Plan
  • Marketing Research ✔
  • Marketing Mix
  • Target Market
17. Through which of the following both short and long term loans can be guaranteed?
  • SME
  • SBA ✔
  • SMEDA
  • Commercial bank
18. Which of the following are the key factors for choosing the type of financing?
  • Availability of funds
  • Assets of the venture
  • Prevailing interest rates
  • All of the above ✔
19. Which one of the following best describes the flow of goods and services from the production to the customer?
  • Organizational plan
  • Marketing plan
  • Operational plan
  • Financial plan
20. The major contribution of export comes from:
  • Leather goods
  • Surgical instruments
  • Sports goods
  • All of the given ✔
21. Which of the following is launched a "Rural industrialization program" to control the unemployment in the rural areas of Punjab?
  • PSIC
  • SSIC
  • SIDB
  • SBFC
22. Which of the following shows the example of collateral?
  • Real State
  • Shares
  • Tangible property
  • All of the given
23. Which of the following number of years a mortgage loan may possibly cover?
  • 20
  • 30
  • 10
  • 40
24. Which of the following is the most frequently used source of funds for startups?
  • Bank loans
  • Capital from savings
  • Credit cards
  • SBA loans
25. All of the following are the major components of any research and development partnership EXCEPT:
  • Contract
  • Sponsoring Company
  • Tax shelter
  • Limited Partnership
26. Which of the following is frequently used for seasonal financing and build inventories?
  • Character loan
  • Self-liquidating loan
  • Long-form loan
  • Installment loan
27. Which of the following would be considered as an operating expense?
  • Rent
  • Raw material
  • Depreciation
  • Advertising
28. SBIR grant program is controlled  by:
  • 10 Agencies
  • 11 Agencies
  • 12 Agencies
  • 13 Agencies
29. Which of the following source of capital is relatively faster and less costly than other funding?
  • Outsourcing
  • Public offering
  • Private offering
  • Boostrap financing
30. The entrepreneur or founder of the new venture usually acts as a ___ for other employees.
  • Friend
  • Role model
  • Actor
  • Evaluator
31. Which one of the following options has NOT a total taxable entity?
  • Minor partner
  • Limited partner
  • General partner
  • All of the given
32. Consider a firm has a fixed cost of Rs. 300,000 variable costs per unit of Rs 2.5 and a selling price of Rs. 8, then the breakeven of the firm will be:
  • 45,454 units
  • 54,545 units
  • 43,434 units
  • 53,535 units
33. Which is one of the most important leadership qualities among managers and employees in the organization?
  • Entrepreneurship
  • Communication
  • Motivation
  • Staffing
34. The bank-lending decisions are made according to which of the following five C's?
  • Character, company, capacity, commodity, and condition
  • Character, capital, capacity, collateral, and condition
  • Character, capacity, commodity, collateral, and condition
  • Character, capital, capacity, collateral, and caution
35. Which of the following is the key feature of a typical contract between the sponsoring company and the limited partnership?
  • The liability for any loss incurred is borne by the limited partners
  • There is no special tax benefit for partners
  • Both a and b
  • None
36. Which of the following institute was established with the aim to assist the small entrepreneurs for elf employment and setting up cottage industry?
  • SSIC
  • SIBD
  • RDFC
  • SBFC
37. Sales revenue of the internet based business can be projected from the:
  • Number of customers
  • Number of hits
  • Number of clicks
  • All of the given
38. Which of the following is the most effective strategy of hiring senior management positions?
  • College recruitment
  • Banks
  • Venture capitalist
  • None
39. Punjab small industries Corporation provides two types of loans to its clients and the maximum limit for the loan is:
  • Rs. 2.5 lac
  • Rs. 6.5 lac
  • Rs 7.5 lac
  • Rs. 8.5 lac