Monday, 24 August 2020

MTH601-Operations Research Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

MTH601-Operations Research Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #FinalTerm

1. The North-West Corner Rule
• is based on the concept of minimizing opportunity cost
• is used to find optimal solution
• is used to find an initial feasible solution
• None
2. In the initial iteration of Big M-method, the artificial variables appear in ___
• Basis
• Non-basic variables set
3. In the Simplex method to solve an LP problem, Gauss Jordan Elimination method demands that all the key column's entries should be ___
• strictly positive
• strictly negative
• maximum or minimum
• zero
4. In North West Corner method, in the first row and first column, avilable resource and sink contain '5' and '7' units respectively; then which of the following amount 'x11' will be allocated in the cell(1, 1)?
• Average(5,7) = 6
• Max(5,7) = 7
• Min(5,7) = 5
• Min(5,7-5) = 2
5. In M-method, which of the following is true about the coefficient (M) of artificial variable (A) in the objective function?
• M-->Zero
• M-->+infinity
• M-->-infinity
• M-->optimal solution
6. If a variable in the Primal is unrestricted in sign, then the corresponding constraint in the dual will be of ___ type and vice versa.
• >=
• <=
• =
• None
7. In Simplex Standard table to solve an LP problem, if the ratio by taking the RHS of each row and dividing by the corresponding element of the key column is {2/3, 1/3, -1/2}, then which of the following variable will be leaving?
• Variable corresponding to '2/3'
• Variable corresponding to '5'
• Variable corresponding to '1/3'
• Variable corresponding to '-1/2'
8. While facing degeneracy in solving an LP problem, then the further iterations always assure the non-negative optimal solution.
• True
• False
9. The dual of the dual of a Linear Programming problem is itself the ___ problem.
• Primal
• dual
• assignment
• transportation
10. In two phase method process, first phase ___ the sum of artificial variabes.
• minimize
• maximize
• maximize or minimize depending on the situation
• None

CS501-Advanced Computer Architecture Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS501-Advanced Computer Architecture Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #FinalTerm

1. In which one of the following methods, does the CPU poll to identify the interrupting module and branches to an interrupt service routine on detecting an interrupt?
• Daisy Chain
• Software Poll ✔
• Multiple interrupt lines
• All of the given
2. Human works with base 10 and computers work with base ___
• 8
• 10
• 2 ✔
• 16
3. ___ is an electrical pathway through which processor communicates with the internal and external devices attached to the computer.
• Computer Bus ✔
• Hazard
• Memory
• Disk
4. An interface that can be used to connect the microcomputer bus to ___ is called an I/O Port.
• Flip Flops
• Memory
• Peripheral devices ✔
• Multiplexers
5. Which is the last instruction of the ISR that is to be executed when the ISR terminates?
• IRET ✔
• IRQ
• INT
• NMI
6. ___ is the simplest form for representing a signed number
• Biased Representation
• Diminished Radix Compliment Form
• Sign Magnitude Form ✔
• None
7. Raid Level ___ is not a true member of the RAID family
• 0 ✔
• 2
• 3
• 4
8. Which I/O technique will be used by a sound card that may need to access data stored in the computer's RAM?
• Programmed I/O
• Interrupt driven I/O
• Direct memory access (DMA) ✔
• Polling
9. Where does the processor store the address of the first instruction of the ISR?
• Interrupt vector ✔
• Interrupt request
• Interrupt handler
• All of the given
10. When a particular sector is found, the data is transferred to ___
• RAM
• I/O module ✔
• Cache memory
• Instruction register
11. ___ is the time needed by the CPU to recognize (not service) an interrupt request.
• Interrupt Latency ✔
• Timer delay
• Throughput
12. The ___ is w-bit wide and contains a data word, directly connected to the data bus which is b-bit wide memory address register (MAR).
• memory buffer register (MBR) ✔
• Program Counter (PC)
• Instruction Register (IR)
• Memory address register (MAR)
13. Adding an address pin to a memory chip increases the capacity of memory by a factor of ___
• 1.5
• 2 ✔
• 2.5
• 3
14. The main issue/s in error control is/are ___
• Detection of Error
• Correction of Error
• Both Detection of Error and Correction of Error ✔
• Avoidance of Error
15. Along with information bits, we add up another bit, which is called?
• Start bit
• Parity bit ✔
• Stop bit
16. The conversion of numbers from a representation in one base to another is known as ___
• Radix Conversion ✔
• Number Representation
• Decimal Representation
17. Why DMA is faster than Programmed I/O technique because?
• DMA transfers data directly using CPU
• DMA transfers data directly without using CPU ✔
• DMA uses buffers with CPU
• DMA uses interrupted driven I/O
18. Multiple copies of the same data can exist in memory hierarchy simultaneously. The Cache needs updating mechanishm to prevent old data values from being used. This is the problem of ___
• Cache Miss
• Dirty Bit
• Cache Coherence ✔
• Write Allocate
19. ___ is the simplest form for representing a signed number
• Biased Representatin
• Diminished Radix Compliment Form
• Sign Magnitude Form ✔
• None
20. ___depends upon the present position of the head and the position of the required sector.
• Direct Memory Access ✔
• Execution Time
• Throughput
• Seektime
21. In which technique does the hardware directly access host memory for reading or writing independent of CPU?
• Direct Memory Access (DMA) ✔
• Programmed I/O
• Interrupt driven I/O
• Polling

CS508-Modern Programming Languages Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS508-Modern Programming Languages Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #FinalTerm

1. In ___ for final fields and methods the value is assigned later but in ___ you assign the value during declaration.
• Java, C++
• C++, C#
• Java, C#
• C++, Java
2. The concept of C# jagged array is similar in function to ___
• C++ rectangular Array
• Java Array of Array
• Java pointer Array
• C# Array
3. ___ in PROLOG are loosely typed
• Variables
• Constants
• Atoms
• Both constants and variables
4. ___ is used to initialize values of arrays in C++ and Java
• []
• {}
• ()
• ""
5. How many kinds of "type conversion" of primitive types are there in Java?
• Two
• Three
• Four
• Five
6. In java, explicit conversion of primitive type is done by ___
• aliasing
• boxing
• casting
7. The interference mechanism of PROLOG is based upon ___
• Forward chaining
• Propositional logic
• Back tracking
• Recursion
8. Dealing with unsafe/unmanaged code in ___ we have to compromise on the type safety.
• C#
• Java
• C++
9. There are no ___ types in java.
• arrays
• classes
• enum
• boolean
10. In Prolog, a "member(X, T)" predicate is used to check the membership of X in ___
• class
• symbol
• list
• both class and symbol
11. Unlike C/C++, arrays in PHP are ___
• Maps
• Templates
• Records
• Both Templates and Records
12. Classes and objects of PHP are similar to ___
• Classes and objects of Java
• Classes and objects of C++
• Classes and objects of Basic
• Classes and Objects of C
13. The ___ operator in C# is used to test if the operator is of a certain type.
• 'IN'
• 'AS'
• 'IS'
• 'OUT'
14. ___ compile initially to an intermediate. Which can be run by interpretation or just in time compilation or an appropriate virtual machine?
• C++ and C#
• C# and Java
• Java and C++
15. In ___ Boolean expression is convertible into integer type.
• C#
• C++
• Java
16. Managed or safe code in ___ is executed under the control of common language runtime (CLR) with automatic garbage collection, no explicit memory allocation and no explicit destructor.
• C++
• Java
• Ada and C++
• C#
17. In C#, Managed code is executed under the control of
• CLR
• CRL
• JVM
• Neither CLR or JVM
18. For event driven mechanism in C# we use ___ just like ___ in C++
• Event handler, Visual C++
• Event Buttons, Graphics code
• delegates, function pointer
• function pointer, delegates
19. C# code when compiled is converted into ___ code.
• MSIL
• MISL
• Bytecode
• machine native code
20. In C# to convert ___ into ___ and vice versa we use the concept of boxing.
• Object type, Primitive type
• Primitive type, reference type
• reference type, value type
• value type, reference type

Thursday, 13 August 2020

CS607-Artificial Intelligence Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS607-Artificial Intelligence Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #FinalTerm

1. Inductive Learning is based on the knowledge that if something happens a lot it is likely to be generally ___
• True ✔
• False
• Ambiguous
• None
2. If the antecedent is only partially true, then the output fuzzy set is truncated according to the ___ method.
• Intrinsic
• Implication ✔
• Boolean
• None
3. The input of aggregation process is the list of truncated output functions returned by the ___ process for each rule.
• Truncation
• Implication ✔
• Aggregation
• None
4. ___ learning works on existing facts and knowledge and deduces new knowledge from the old.
• Deductive ✔
• Inductive
• Application
• None
5. Machine learning typically follows ___ phases according to Finlay.
• Two
• Three ✔
• Four
• Five
6. Which one is NOT the phase of machine learning:
• Training
• Application
• Validation
• None ✔
7. In theoretical computer science there are two main branches of problems.
• Tractable and Intractable ✔
• Intractable and Induction
• Tractable and Induction
• None
8. ___ is the process by which the fuzzy sets that represent the outputs of each rule are combined into a single fuzzy set.
• Aggregation ✔
• Fuzzification
• Implication
• None
9. Outputs of learning are determined by the ___
• Application ✔
• Validation
• Training
• None
10. ___ is the process of formulating the mapping from a given input to an output using Fuzzy logic.
• FIZ
• FIS ✔
• FOS
• None
11. The brain is a collection of about 100 ___ interconnected neurons.
• Million
• Billion ✔
• Trillion
• None
12. A single Perceptron simply draws a line, which is a hyper plane when the data is ___ than/to two (2) dimensional.
• More ✔
• Less
• Equal
• None
13. In Candidate-Elimination algorithm version space is represented by two sets named:
• G and S ✔
• G and F
• S and F
• H and S
14. The first step of FIND-S is to initialize h to the most specific hypothesis in ___ : h<>
• H ✔
• I
• J
• K
15. Decision trees give us disjunctions of conjunctions, that is, they have the form: (A AND B) ___ (C AND D)
• OR ✔
• AND
• XOR
• None
16. Interactive Dichotomizer uses a special function ___, to evaluate the gain information of each attribute.
• GAIN ✔
• GET
• FIND
• EVAL
17. Measure of the effectiveness of an attribute in classifying the training data is called
• Information Gain ✔
• Measure Gain
• Information Goal
• None
18. Artificial Neural Networks is a new learning paradigm which takes its roots from ___ inspired approach to learning.
• Chemistry
• Physics
• Biology ✔
• Mathematics
19. Which one is NOT the advantage of Neural Network
• Excellent for pattern recognition
• Excellent classifiers
• Handles noisy data well
• None ✔
20. In all calculations involving Entropy we define ___ to be ___
• 0 log 0, 0 ✔
• 0 log 10, 1
• 0 log 0, 1
• 1 log 1, 1

Wednesday, 3 June 2020

CS201-Intro to Programming Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS201-Intro to Programming Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. The increment of a pointer depends on its ___

• variable
• value
• data type
• None

2. Given a two dimensional array of integers, what would be the correct way of assigning the value 6 to the element at third row and fourth column?

• array[3][4] = 6;
• array[2][4] = 6;
• array[4][3] = 6;
• array[2][3] = 6;

3. ___ returns true if c is a digit and false otherwise.

• int isalpha(int c)
• int isalnum(int c)
• int isxdigit(int c)
• int isdigit(int c)

4. ___ are conventional names of the command line parameters of the 'main()' function.

• 'argb' and 'argv'
• 'argc' and 'argv'
• 'argc' and 'argu'
• None

5. To get the value stored at a memory address, we use the ___

• referencing operator
• dereferencing operator
• simple operator
• None

6. We can define a matrix as ___ array

• Sorted
• Unsorted
• Single dimensional
• Multi dimensional

7. We can say that a pointer is a variable that hold the ___ address.

• byte code
• source code
• memory
• compiler

8. dereferencing operator is represented by ___

• *
• +
• -
• None

9. Base address is the memory address of ___ element of an array.

• 1st
• 2nd
• 3rd
• 4th

10. A character is stored in the memory in ___

• byte
• integer
• string
• None

11. At the ___, we try to break up the problem into functional units.

• analysis phase
• design phase
• implementation phase
• None

12. We use ___ to open a file or stream for insertion.

• in
• out
• app
• ate

Tuesday, 7 April 2020

User Registration Login Logout System with source code Free Download | Core PHP Project | SSWT

Step-2: Extract the .zip file and Place in Xampp->htdocs folder

Next Step is to Extract the .zip file
Go to This PC -> OS(C:) -> xampp -> htdocs
and Paste the folder (Register_Login_Logout_System) in htdocs folder

Note: Please install Xampp server in order to run your Project. You can download it from https://sourceforge.net/projects/xampp/

Step-3: Start the LocalHost

Now open Xampp Control Panel
1. Start the Apache Module and
2. Start the MySQL Module

Step-4: Import Database

Go to your browser and type the following URL:
• Click Databases from Top Bar
• Create a New DataBase with the name "login_system"
• Now click Import from Top Bar
• Click Choose File
And select the Database file from the folder

And then click Go
Your database file has been Imported

Step-5: Run the Project on LocalHost

Now type the following URL in Browser

You will see an index page
• Now Run and Test the Project according to your requirement Either Register or Login
You can also register a new user and then Log In using that new user.

Need any Help? Feel free to ask any related question.

Tuesday, 24 March 2020

MTH401-Differential Equations Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

MTH401-Differential Equations Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #FinalTerm

1. The non-trivial solution of the system of differential equation exist only when
• det(X-λI)=0
• det(A-λI)≠0
• det(A+λI)=0
• det(A-λI)=0
2. Vectors
 ( -1 ) and ( 2 ) are linearly ___ 0 0

• Dependent
• Independent
3.
 [ b11 ] is a b21
• Row matrix
• column matrix
4. Vectors
 ( -2 ) and ( -66 ) are linearly ___ 3 99
• Dependent
• Independent
5. Matrix form of the following system of non-homogenous differential equations is
dy/dx = -2x +4y + et -4t
dy/dx = 3x-4y+11t
•  X' = [ -2 4 ] [ x ] + [ 1 ]et + [ -4 ]t 3 -4 y 0 11
6. If A is a m X n matrix and A=AT which of the following must always be true?
• m ≠ n
• m = n
7. A matrix is defined as
 A = [ a b ], k is a constant then c d
• A = kA
• Ak = kA
• -Ak = Ak
• Ak ≠ kA
8. If
 K = [ 1 ] -1
is an eigenvector of the given matrix
 A = [ 1 0 ] then AK is 0 1

• 1K
• -1K
• 1
• -1
9. Let
 A = [ a b ] and B = [ u v ] then A + B is c d x y
•  A + B = [ a + u b + v ] c + x d + y
10. The equation form of a non-homogenous system of differential equations
 X' = [ -2 4 ] [ x ] + [ 1 ]et + [ -4 ]t 3 -4 y 0 11
• X' = -2x + 4y + et - 4t,     X' = 3x - 4y + 11t

Sunday, 22 March 2020

CS605-Software Engineering 2 Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS605-Software Engineering II Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a ___ technique for assessing the progress of a project
• Qualitative
• Quantitative
• Subjective
• None
2. The basic idea behind Software configuration management is:
• To manage and control the change
• To efficiently allocate the resources
• To properly manage status reporting
• None
3. Following are effective guidelines for Review EXCEPT
• We need to review the product, not the producer
• Be sensitive to personal egos
• Errors should be pointed out gently
• Tone should be high and strict
4. if :
E = Errors found before shipment
D = Errors found during operation
Then Defect Removal Efficiency (DRE) is equal to:
• DRE = E + (E+D)
• DRE = E-(E+D)
• DRE = E*(E+D)
• DRE = E/(E+D)
5. In order to use the PERT and CPM, which one of the following is NOT required?
• Decomposition of tasks - also known as the work breakdown structure (WBS)
• Teams communication mode details
• Estimation of effort
• Interdependencies
6. If an error related to requirements is identified in testing phase, this error will be considered as an error of ___ phase
• Requirement
• Design
• Code
• Testing
7. Quality cost may be delivered into costs associated with:
• Prevention, appraisal and failure
• Customers, developers and maintenace
• Builds, releases and products
• Bugs, errors and reports
8. Poka-Yoke is the name of a
• QA technique
• Japanese dish
• Idiom
•  None
9. Configuration Auditing deals with:
• Ensuring that Resources have been allocated properly
• Ensuring that changes are implemented parallel with SDLC framework activities
• Ensuring that the changes have been implemented properly
• All of the given
10. FTR stands for:
• Feasibility of technical requirement
• Fetched Technical Requirement
• Formal Technical Review
• None
11. A Software Requirement Specification is traced if the ___ of its requirements is clear.
• Quality
• Slandered
• Origin
• None
12. Version Control discusses about:
• How does an organization control changes before and after software is released to a customer
• How the resources will be assigned to tasks in work breakdown structure (WBS)
• How the test cases will be executed before deploying each release.
• All of given
13. The implemented requirement has been ___ through the selected approach, such as testing or inspection.
• Verified
• Deleted
• Approved
• None
14. The Software reengineering is a ___ activity.
• Code
• Out dated
• Document
• Non-trivial
15. Which of the following is NOT an example of Software Configuration Item (SCI):
• Test Case
• Integration Plan
• Design specification
• None
16. Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) can be calculated by:
• MTBF = MTTF + MTTR
• MTBF = MTTF - MTTR
• MTBF = (MTTF/MTTR)*100
• MTBF = (MTTR/MTTF)*100
17. ___ software development is itself risky as changes to one part of the system inevitably involve further changes to other components.
• Forward
• Reverse
• Old
• New
18. Program is restructured ___ the reverse engineering phase. In this case we modify source code and data in order to make it amenable to future changes.
• After
• None
• Along with
• Before
19. ___ Managers look at the system from the angle that does the system and associated business process make an effective contribution to the business goal?
• Senior
• IT
• None
• Line
20. ___ user assess the system from the perspective of how effective do they find the system in supporting their business processes and how much of the system functionality is used.
• Senior
• IT
• Line
• End
21. A system is considered to be a legacy system if it has been in operation for ___ years. A legacy system has many components.
• Less than seven
• Many
• More than two
• Less than ten
22. Legacy system migration, however, is an easy task and there are a number of risks involved that need to be mitigated
• Simple
• Crucial
• None
• Easy
23. ___ engineering does not simply create a modern equivalent of an older program, rather new user and technology requirements are integrated into the reengineering effort
• Forward
• None
• Reverse
• BPR
24. Which of the following the NOT one of the attributes of requirements.
• Requirement ID
• Creation Date
• Created By
25. If the version of a release changes from 1.0.0 to 2.0.0 what will you conclude about new release (having version 2.0.0)
• There was no change in functionality
• There was major change in functionality
• There was partial change in functionality
• Bugs in previous functionality were removed
26. Which of the following is NOT one of the tasks included in Software Configuration Management.
• Version Control
• Configuration Auditing
• Test Case develoment
• Change control

MTH501-Linear Algebra Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

MTH501-Linear Algebra Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. Which of the following system will have a trivial solution?
• x = y = 1
• x = 1, y = 0
• x = 0, y = 1
• x = y = 0
2.
 ( cosΘ sinΘ )-1= -sinΘ cosΘ
•  ( cosΘ sinΘ ) -sinΘ cosΘ
•  ( -cosΘ sinΘ ) sinΘ cosΘ
•  ( cosΘ sinΘ ) sinΘ -cosΘ
•  ( cosΘ -sinΘ ) sinΘ cosΘ
3. The system of equations:
x1=0=x2
can be expressed in the form
• Ax=0
• Ax=b
• Ax=0, By=1
• Ax=1, By=0
4. Which of the following is Row - Equivalent of
 ( 3 4 )? 1 2

•  ( 2 -4 ) -1 3
•  ( 3 1 ) 4 2
•  ( 4 3 ) 2 1
•  ( 1 2 ) 3 4
5. The system of equations : y=0 and x=5 has ___ solution(s).
• No
• Unique
• Infinite many
• distinct multiple
6. The equation : 0x-0y=-5 has ___ solution(s)
• No
• Unique
• Infinite many
• distinct finite
7. Which of the following is an example of Matrix in reduced Echelon form?
•  ( 0 1 ) 1 0
•  ( 0 0 ) 1 1
•  ( 1 0 ) 0 1
•  ( 0 1 ) 0 1
8. Under which of the following condition, a system of Linear Equations whose Row-Reduce form is
 ( 1 2 | -1 ) 0 0 h-3k
has Infinite many solutions?
• h=3k
• h ≠ 3k
• (h,k) = (0,0)
• (h,k) ≠(0,0)
9. For the following system of Equation:
x+2y = 0, 2x-y=0;
the solution set is ___
• Real line ℝ
• Line through origin in ℝ2
• Line through origin in ℝ3
• Any orbitrary line in ℝ2
10.Set
 { ( 1 ) , ( 0 ) } is Linearly ___ in ℝ2 2 0

• Independent
• Dependent
11. The value of x satisfying the equation:
 | x 2 | = x | 5 -2 |, is 3 -1 3 -1
• -3
• 3
• 6
• -6
12. Which of the following would be the value of t, if
 [ 2e-3t ] = [ 2 ]? 5e-3t 5
• ∓1/3
• 2/5
• zero
13. Which of the following corresponding Matrix form of the Linear equation x+y=3?
•  x ( 1 ) + y ( 0 ) = 3 ( 1 ) 0 1 0
•  x ( 1 ) + y ( 0 ) = 3 ( 0 ) 0 1 1
• x |1| + y |1| = 3 |1|
• can't be expressed in Matrix form
14. Vectors
 ( -2 ) and ( -66 ) 3 99
are linearly?
• Dependent
• Independent
15. Which of the following is true about the existence of free variables (parameter) in a system of Linear Equations?
• They guarantee the Consistency
• They guarantee the inconsistency
• They do not guarantee the consistency
• None
16. Slope and y-intercept of the line: 2x+3y=-1 ___ respectively
• -2/3 and -1/3
• 2/3 and -1/3
• -2/3 and 1/3
• 2/3 and 1/3
17. The equation 0x-0y=0 has ___ solution(s).
• No
• Unique
• Infinite many
• multiple finite

CS502-Fundamentals of Algorithms Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS502-Fundamentals of Auditing Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. There are no ___ edges in an undirected graph.
• Forward
• Back
• Cross
• Both forward and back
2. Those problems in which Greedy finds good, but not always best is called a greedy
• Algorithm
• Solution
• Heuristic
• Result
3. For an undirected graph, there is no distinction between forward and back adges.
• True
• False
4. Counting money problem:
• can be optimally solved by greedy algorithm
• cannot be optimally solved by greedy algorithm
• cannot be solved by brute force algorithm
• All of the given
5. You have an adjacency list for G, what is the time complexity to compute Graph transpose G^T?
• (V+E)
• V.E
• V
• E
6. Networks are ___ in the sense that it is possible from any location in the network to reach any other location in the digraph.
• complete
• incomplete
• not graphs
• transportation
7. Graph is not a good way to model some sort of "connection" or "relationship" or "interaction" between pairs of objects taken from a set of objects
• True
• False
8. In computing the strongly connected components of a digraph, vertices of the digraph are not partitioned into subsets
• True
• False
9. In general, the Activity Selection Problem is to select a ___
• Minimum -size set of interfering activities
• Maximum-size set of mutually non-interfering activities
• Maximum-size set of interfering activities
• Minimum-size set of mutually non-interfering activities
10. Which is a true statement in the following?
• Kruskal algorithm is a multiple source technique for finding MST
• Kruskal's algorithm is used to find the minimum spanning tree of a graph, time complexity of this algorithm is O(EV)
• Both of the above
• Kruskal's algorithm (choose best non-cycle edge) is better than Prim's (choose best Tree edge) when the graph has relatively few edges.

CS502-Fundamentals of Algorithms Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS502-Fundamentals of Auditing Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. While solving Selection problem, in Sieve technique we partition input data ___
• in increasing order
• in decreasing order
• according to Pivot
• randomly
2. In Selection problem, the Sieve technique works in ___
• Non-recursive manner
• constant time
• phases
• one complete go
3. While analyzing Selection algorithm, we make a number of phases, in fact it could be as many as ___
• n(n+1)
• log(n)
• n/3
• n/4
4. In the statement "output P[i].x, P[i].y", the number of times elements of P are accessed is ___
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
5. In Heap Sort algorithm, Heapify procedure is ___ in nature
• Recursive
• Non-recursive
6. The O-notation is used to state only the asymptotic ___ bounds
• two
• lower
• upper
• both lower and upper
7. The time assumed for each basic operation to execute on RAM model of computation is ___
• infinite
• continuous
• constant
• variable
8. The iteration method is used for ___
• comparing sorting algorithms only
• solving recurrence relations
• merging elements in Merge sort
•  Dividing elements in Merge sort
9. Efficient algorithm requires less computational ___
• memory
• running time
• memory and running time
• energy
10. In plane sweep approach, a vertical line is swept across the 2d-plane from ___
• right to left
• left to right
• top to bottom
• bottom to top
11. Counting sort is suitable for sorting the elements within range 1 to P, where ___
• P is large
• P is small
• P is very large
• P is undetermined
12. In Dynamic Programming based solution of the knapsack problem, to compute entries of 'V'. we will imply a(n)___ approach
• Subjective
• Inductive
• Brute Force
• Combination
13. We can make ___ recursive calls in Fibonacci Sequence
• Infinite
• Finite
14. In Quick sort algorithm, ___ decides nature of Binary Search Tree formed by Pivots.
• No one
• Smallest element from input
• Rank of the input
• Largest element from input
15. In Dynamic Programming approach, solution is modified/changed ___
• Always once
• At each stage
• Only for specific problems
• At the 4th stage only
16. Radix sort performs sorting the numbers ___ digit(s) at a time
• one
• two
• three
• all
17. In the Fibonacci sequence, each term is calculated by ___ previous ___ terms.
• Subtracting, two
• Multiplying, two
18. ___ is a linear time sorting algorithm
• Merge sort
• Quicksort
• Bubble sort
19. A sorting algorithm is called as ___ if duplicate elements remain in the same relative position after sorting.
• Parallel
• O(n) algorithm
• Stable
• Complex
20. For comparison-based sorting algorithms, it is ___ possible to sort more efficiently than Omega nlog(n) time
• Always
• Not
• Sometimes
• Sometimes not
21. In ___ Knapsack problem, the limitation is that an item can either be put in the bag or not. Fractional items are not allowed.
• 0
• 1
• 0/1
• Fractional
22. We do not need to mathematically prove that for comparison-based sorting algorithms always takes Omega nlog(n) time.
• True
• False
23. Identify the TRUE statement
• The Knapsack problem does not belong to the domain of optimization problems
• The Knapsack problem belongs to the domain of optimization problems
• The Knapsack problem can not be solved by using dynamic programming
• The Knapsack problem is optimally solved by using a brute force algorithm
24. Radix sort is not a non-comparative sorting algorithm
• True
• False
25. Dynamic Programming strategy is useful when sub-problems are independent
• True
• False
26. For average-case time analysis of Quicksort algorithm, Pivot selection is on an average basis from ___
• half of the input values
• all possible random values
• Pivot is input separately
• values greater than 5
27. Bubble sort is not an in-place sorting algorithm
• True
• False
28. In Fibonacci Sequence, unnecessary repetitions do not exist at all.
• True
• False
29. In a strong components algorithm, the form of graph is used in which all the ___ of original graph G have been reversed in direction.
• Vertices
• Edges
• Both edges and vertices
• None
30. Traversing a graph means visiting ___ in the graph.
• no node
• at least one
• more than one node
• every node

PHY301-Circuit Theory Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

PHY301-Circuit Theory Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. To which of the winding of transformer alternating voltage is applied
• primary winding
• secondary winding
2. A transformer will be out of phase when
• output voltage is 0 degree out of phase with input voltage
• output voltage is 180 degree out of phase with input voltage
• output voltage is 360 degree out of phase with input voltage
• output voltage is same as input voltage
3. For secondary turns of 10 and primary turns of 20, the turn ratio is
• 20:20
• 10:20
• 10:10
• 20:10
4. which relation is true for transformer primary and secondary power
• V1V2=I1I2
• V2I2=V1I1
• V2I1=V1I2
• I2I1=V2V1
5. For I-V curve of a diode, a changing current from 20 mA to 10mA and voltage from 0.72v to 0.78v, cause AC resistance of value
• 8 ohms
• 6ohms
• 1.66 ohms
• none
6. Thermal ionization in semiconductor results creating of
• only free electrons
• only holes
• both free electrons and holes
• nothing
7. When germanium crystal is doped with a phosphorus atom, it becomes
• P-type semiconductor
• N-type semiconductor
• Insulator
• photo-transistor
8. A transformer has turn ratio 5 and the secondary voltage is 10v, the primary voltage is
• 25v
• 2v
• 0.5v
•  100
9. Addition of impurities in semiconductor material to produce more current is called
• intrinsic
• dopping
• bonding
• excitation
10. For forward biased condition of P-N junction
• +Ve polarity to N electrode and -Ve polarity to P electrode
• +Ve polarity to both N and P electrode
• +Ve polarity to P electrode and -Ve polarity to N electrode
• -Ve polarity to both N and P electrode

PHY301-Circuit Theory Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

PHY301-Circuit Theory Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. Three resistances of values 7 ohms, 5 ohms, and 2 ohms are connected in series of a voltage source. Through which resistance least current will flow.
• 7 ohms
• 5 ohms
• 2 ohms
• same through all resistances
2. What is the electron valence of an element of atomic number 5?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
3. The closed path for flow of current in which no node is encountered more than once is called
• node
• loop
• branch
• super node
4. Current through open circuit is:
• high
• minimum
• zero
• infinite
5. When one resistance in a series string is open
• The current is maximum in the normal resistances
• The current is zero in all resistances
• The voltage is zero across the open resistance
• The current increases in voltage source
6. A voltage divider is also called as
• Current divider
• Potential divider
• Voltage regulator
• Current regulator
7. When placed together, a positively charged material and a negatively charged material will
• repel
• become neutral
• attract
• exchange charges
8. Which one of the following components in the circuit is used to produce heat or limiting amount of current?
• capacitor
• resistor
• inductor
•  loop
9. Junction of two or more than two elements in a circuit is called
•  loop
• ground
• node
• joint
10. Usually, KVL OR KCL equation is not written for
• Ordinary node
• reference node
• super node
• second node
11. The internal resistance of an ideal voltage source is
• Maximum
• one half of external resistance
• Zero
• infinity
12. Distance or link between two nodes is called
• branch
• loop
• node
• super node
13. Unit of inductance is
• mho
• ohm
• Henry
14. When two resistances are connected in series
• both must have the same resistance value
• both must have a different resistance value
• the voltage across each must be the same
• there is only one path for current for both resistances
15. Electron orbits are called
• shells
• nuclei
• waves
• valences

Saturday, 21 March 2020

CS602-Computer Graphics Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS602-Computer Graphics Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. The ___tests are performed for the midpoints between pixels near the circle path at each sampling step.
• Parabola function
• Eclipse function
• Circle function
• Line function
2. A ___ is the set of all points (x, y) that are the same distance from the directrix and focus not on the directrix.
• Circle
• Hyperbola
• Parabola
• Ellipse
3. Both Boundary Filling and Flood filling algorithms are non-recursive techniques.
• True
• False
4. In ___ algorithm(s), old color must be read before it is invoked.
• Scan line filling
• Flood filling
• Both Scan line and flood filling
• Scan filling
5. Both Boundary Filling and Flood filling algorithms are ___ as compared to scan line filling algorithm.
• Better
• Worse
• Almost same
• Good
6. ___ is used for the circumference of a circle.
• 2*r
• 2*pi*c
• 2*pi
• None
7. If a line connecting any two points within a polygon does not intersect any edge, then it will be a ___
• Convex
• Concave
• Complex
• Concave and Complex
8. ___ is the set of points that are equidistant from its origin.
• Line
• Parabola
• Circle
•  Ellipse
9. We can draw the circle using ___
• Pentane
• Hexanes
• Trident
• Octants
10. Parity is a concept used to determine which ___ lie within a polygon.
• Edge
• Vertices
• Pixels
• Points
11. Locations can be translated or "transformed" from one coordinate system to the other.
• True
• False
12. A two-dimensional rotation is applied to an object by repositioning it along a ___ path in the XY plane
• Straight
• Circular
• Oval
• Ellipse
13. In 2D transformation, ___ can be achieved by rotating the object about 180 degrees.
• Translation
• Scaling
• Shear
• Reflection
14. The shortcoming of the Sutherland-Hodgeman Algorithm is concave polygons may be displayed with extensors lines.
• True
• False
15. The process of subdivision an entity or surface into one or more non-overlapping primitives.
• Rendering
• Modeling
• Meshing
• None
16. In Trivial acceptance/reject test there are four bits of nine regions, Bit2 represents condition ___
• Outside half plane of left edge, to the left of left edge X<Xmin
• Outside half plane of right edge, to the right of right edge X>Xmax
• Outside half plane of bottom edge, below bottom edge Y<Ymin
• Outside half plane of top edge, above top edge Y>Ymax
17. In 2D transformation, two successive rotations can be performed in any order (rotation 1 then rotation 2 or rotation 2 then rotation 1)
• True
• False
18. In Trivial acceptance/reject test there are four bits of nine regions, Bit4 represents condition ___
• Outside half plane of left edge, to the left of left edge X<Xmin
• Outside half plane of right edge, to the right of right edge X>Xmax
• Outside half plane of bottom edge, below bottom edge Y<Ymin
• Outside half plane of top edge, above top edge Y>Ymax
19. ___ is the process of describing an object or scene so that we can construct an image of it.
• Rendering
• Modeling
• Meshing
• None
20. Sutherland-Hodgeman clipping algorithm clips any polygon against a concave clip polygon
• True
• False

Thursday, 19 March 2020

CS402-Theory of Automata Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS402-Theory of Automata Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. Set of all palindromes over {a, b} is:
• Regular
• Regular and finite
• Regular and infinite
• Non-regular
2. The unit production is ___
• Terminal->Terminal
• Terminal->Non Terminal
• Non terminal->Terminal
• Non terminal->Non Terminal
3. Which of the following cannot be represented by a regular expression?
• String of 0's with an odd length
• String of 0's with a prime length
• Language of even-even
• Language of odd-odd
4. If R is regular language and Q is any language (regular/non-regular), then Pref(___in ___) is regular.
• Q, Q
• Q, R
• R, Q
• R, R
5. If an FA accepts a word then there must exist a path from ___
• Initial to final state
• Initial to each state
• Initial to each state but not to final state
• Initial to final state by traversing each state
6. a^n b^n generates the ___ language
• regular
• non regular
• EQUAL and non regular
• EQUAL and regular
7. A language ending with 'b' partitions Σ* into ___ distinct classes.
• three
• four
• two
• five
8. Which of the following refers to the set of strings of letters that when concatenated to the front of some word in Q produces some word in R?
• Postf(R in Q)
• Postf(Q in R)
• Pref(Q in R)
• Pref(R in Q)
9. The CFG is said to be ambiguous if there exist at least one word of its language that can be generated by ___ production trees.
• one
• two
• more than one
• at most one
10. A problem that has decision procedure is called ___ problem
• Regular language
• un-decidable
• infinite
• decidable
11. The language  "PRIME" is an example of ___ language.
• regular but finite
• regular
• non regular but finite
• non regular
12. There is at least one production in CFG that has one___ on its left side.
• terminal
• null production
• unit production
• non terminal
13. For a non regular language, there exists ___ FA
• one
• at least one
• at most one
• no
14. Consider the following CFG:
S->a|Xb|aYa
X->Y|^   (NOTE: ^means NULL)
Y->b|X
Which Non-terminal(s) is/are NOT nullable?
• S
• X
• Y
• S, X, and Y
15. One language can have ___ CFG(s)
• Only one
• At least one
• More than one
• At most one
16. If L1 and L2 are two regular languages, then they ___ expressed by FAs.
• cannot be
• maybe
• can be
• may or may not be
17. In a CFG, the non-terminals are denoted by ___
• small letters
• numbers
• capital letters
• small letters and numbers
18. If the FA has N states, then test the words of length less than N. If no word is accepted by this FA, then it will ___ word/words.
• accept all
• accept no
• accept some
• reject no

CS402-Theory of Automata Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH

CS402-Theory of Automata Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. The state where there is no way to leave after the entry is called ___
• Davey John locker
• initial state
• final state
• non-final state
2. The recursive method for defining a language has ___ steps.
• one
• two
• three
• four
3. Let S={aa, bb}, then S* will have the ___ string.
• ^
• abba
• aabbbaa
• bbaab
4. The language of all strings defined over alphabet set = {a, b} that does not end with 'a' actually ends with:
• b
• b and ^
• ^
• ^ and a
5. a(a+b*b+b(a+b*a)) is the RE of language defined over Σ={a, b} is ___
• starting with a and ending in b or starting with b and ending in a
• starting with a and ending in b
• starting with b and ending in a
• starting with a and ending in a
6. Let S = {a, bb, bab, baabb} be a set of strings, which one of the following will not be included in S*?
• baba
• baabbabb
• bbaaabb
• bbbaabaabb
7. Which of the following regular expressions represent same language?
1. (a+ab)*
2. (ba+a)*
3. a*(aa*b)*
4. (a*b*)*
• 1 and 2
• 1 and 3
• 3 and 4
• 1 and 4
8. According to theory of automata there are ___ types of languages.
• One
• Two
• Three
•  Four
9. Kleen's Theorem Part III expresses the relationship between ___
• FA and TG
• TG and RE
• RE and FA
• FA and RE
10. Kleene's Theorem Part II expresses the relationship between ___
• FA and TG
• TG and RE
• RE and FA
• FA and RE
11. In case of finite automation there ___ be a transaction on each ___ for every letter of the alphabet set.
• must, state
• may be, state
• often, edge
• must, edge
12. Which of the following is the minimal number of states for a finite automation accepting the language of all strings defined over any alphabet set?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
13. Two FAs are said to be equivalent if they ___
• accept null string
• accept the same language
• accept different language
• None
14. The length of the string "AbBAbcd" defined over Σ= {Ab, B, c, d} is ___
• three
• four
• five
• six
15. The language of all strings defined over alphabet set = {x, y} having triple x's or triple y's will have the minimum strings with length of:
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
16. For every three regular expressions R, S, and T, the languages denoted by R(S U T) and (RS) U (RT) are the ___
• same
• different
• R(S U T) is Greater
• None
17. How many types of machines exist, generating output for specific input?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
18. In the context of make NFA for the concatenation of FA1 and FA2 (FA2 accepting null string), which of the following option is correct?
• Initial states in both FAs
• FA2 having initial state only
• Final states in both FAs
• FA2 having final states only
19. Let L be the language of all strings, defined over Σ = {0,1}, ending in 10. Which of the following strings are indistinguishable with respect to L with z being 0?
• 100, 101
• 111, 101
• 110, 101
• 010, 101
20. While developing NFA for the union of FA1 and FA2, if there is a loop of 'a' at the initial state of FA1 then the new initial state will have a transition for 'a' that goes straight to:
• the initial state of FA1
• the initial state of FA1*FA1
• the initial state of FA2
• the final state of FA1
21. The language {a, ab, aba, bab} is ___
• regular
• recursive
• infinite
• irregular
22. In NFA, if null word (lambda) is allowed to be a label of an edge, then that NFA is called ___
• NFA with one string
• NFA with two strings
• NFA without null string
• NFA with null string
23. If we have an NFA having 3 states, and we convert that NFA to an FA. The resultant FA will contain ___ states.
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
24. FA corresponding to an NFA can be built by introducing a state corresponding to the combination of states, for a letter having
• no transition at certain state
• one transition at certain state
• more than one transitions at certain state
• None
25. How many new states are introduced while developing NFA for the closure of an FA?
• one
• two
• three
• four
26. Suppose we have the regular expression:
aa(a+b+c)*bb(a+b+c)*cc
Which of the following will not be generated by the given RE?
• aabbcc
• aaabcbbcbacc
• aaabbbbccc
• aaaabbccbc
27. If r1 = (aa + bb) and r2 = (a + b) then the language (aa+bb)(a+b) will be generated by ___

• (r1)(r2)
• (r1+r2)
• (r2)(r1)
• (r1)*

28. Suppose we have an alphabet set having four symbols, how many transitions will be there on each state of a finite automation for any language defined over the given alphabet?

• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

29. FA is also called

• TG
• GTG
• NFA
• DFA

30. If S={a}, then S+ will be ___

• {a, aaa, aaaa, aaaaa, ...}
• {a, aa, aaa, aaaa, ...}
• {a, aaa, aaaaa, aaaaaaa, ...}
• {aa, aaaa, aaaaaa, aaaaaaaa, ...}

31. There can be more than ___ FA for a certain language but for ___ FA there is only one language associated with it.

• one, one
• one, two
• two, three
• two, one

32. When ODD language is expressed by an FA, then it will have minimum ___ states.

• one
• two
• three
• four

33. Which of the following statement is NOT true about TG?

• There exists exactly one path for certain string
• There may exist more than one paths for certain string
• There may exist no path for certain string
• There may be no final state

34. Consider the following RE:
a(a+b)b*
All of the following words are accepted except ___

• aab
• abb
• aa
• aaa

35. If an FA has 3 states and 2 letters in the alphabet, then it will have ___ number of transitions

• 4
• 5
• 6
• 7

36. Which of the following statement is true about GTG?

• Transitions are based on input letters
• Transitions are based on specified substrings
• Transitions are based on regular expressions
• Transitions are based on alphabet set

37. Length of EVEN-EVEN language is ___

• Even
• Odd
• Sometimes even & sometimes odd
• Such language does not exist

38. The language having even number of a's and even number of b's defined over S = {a, b} is called ___

• EVEN-EVEN
• ODD-ODD
• PALINDROME
• FACTORIAL

39. Which of the following diagram is very rigid in order to express any language?

• TG
• NFA
• GTG
• FA

40. Which one of the following is the RE for the language defined over Σ = {a, b} having all the words starting with a?

• (a+b)*
• aa(a+b)+
• a(a+b)*
• a*(a+b)

41. Which one of the following string is a part of EQUAL language?

• aabbba
• babab
• ababab
• aabbaa

42. Keeping in view the language of all strings ending with 'a', for which symbol we will take a loop on the final state of its transition diagram?

• a
• b
• c
• d

43. Which is false about the PALINDROME LANGUAGE?

• Every word is reverse of itself
• It is an infinite language
• FA can be build for it
• None

44. The FA can be drawn for the regular expression (a+b)* with minimum ___ state(s)

• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

45. How many states of a finite automation will be final for accepting L = {^, b, bb, bbb}?

• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

46. FA stands for ___

• Finite Auotomation
• Fixed Automation
• False Automation
• Functional Automation

47. Which of the following string belongs to the language of the regular expression (aa*b)*?

• baabab
• abbbaa
• aaaaaa
• aabaab

48. What is false about the term alphabet?

• It is a finite set of symbols
• It is usually denoted by Greek letter sigma
• It can be an empty set
• Strings are made up of its elements

49. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

• FA can be considered to be an NFA
• FA can be considered to be an NFA with null string
• NFA can be considered to be a TG
• TG can be considered to be an NFA

50. We can create an equivalent ___ for a language for which we create an ___

• FA, NFA
• NFA, FA
• FA, GTG
• None

51. In which of the following machine, the length of output string is the same to that of input string?

• Moore machine
• Finite automation with output
• Mealy machine
• Non-deterministic finite automation

52. A ___ with "n" states must accept at least one string of length greater than "n"

• DFA
• RE
• Irregular language
• Irrelevant languge

53. While developing NFA for the union of FA1 and FA2, there will be ___ transition/transitions for both 'a' and 'b' on the new initial state.

• Single
• Only one
• Only three
• Multiple

54. Keeping in view the discussion by Martin, how many states are required to recognize the language of all strings defined over Σ = {a, b}, with 'b' being the second letter from right?

• 6
• 7
• 8
• 9
55. In order to make NFA for the union of FA1 and FA2, the final state/states of:
• both FAs should be linked
• FA1 have a transition to the final state of FA2
• both FAs should be left intact
• FA2 have a transition to the final state FA1
56. FA corresponding to an NFA can be built by introducing an empty state for a letter having
• no transition at certain state
• one transition at certain state
• two transitions at certain state
• more than two transitions at certain state
57. If we have only one state, having no transition for input letters, then i is an example of:
• RE
• FA
• TG
• NFA
58. In the context of make NFA for the concatenation of FA1 and FA2 (FA1 accepting null string), which of the following option is correct?
• Initial states in both FAs
• FA2 having initial state only
• FA2 havig final state only
• Final states in both FAs
59. In which of the following machine, the length of output string is 1 more than that of input string?
• Mealy machine
• Moore machine
• Finite automation with output
• Non-deterministic finite automation
60. An ___ can be considered to be an intermediate structure between Finite automation and Trnsition Graph.
• RE
• GTG
• NFA
• None
61. We cannot construct an NFA for the language of ___ defined over alphabet set {a, b}
• Even Even
• Odd
• Palindromes
• Integers
62. The language of all strings defined over Alphabet set = {x, y} that ends with same letter will have the maximum length of :
• 1
• 2
• 3
• infinite
63. Reverse of string "BcAbed" defined over = {Ab, Bc, d, e} is ___
• debABc
• deAbBc
• deAbcB
• debAcB
64. If two RE's generate same language then these RE's are called ___
• Same RE
• Equal RE
• Similar RE
• Equivalent RE
65. Let FA3 be an FA corresponding to FA1FA2, then the initial state of FA3 must correspond to initial state of:
• FA1 only
• FA2 only
• FA1 or FA2
• FA1 and FA2
66. If r1 and r2 are regular expressions then (r1*r2) is a/an ___
• FA
• TG
• GTG
• Regular expression
67. Kleene's Theorem part I expresses the relationship between ___
• FA and TG
• TG and RE
• RE and FA
• FA and RE
68. In the context of make NFA for the concatenation of FA1 and FA2 (Both FAs accepting null string) which of the following option is correct?
• Final states in both FAs
• Initial states in both FAs
• FA2 having initial state only
• FA2 having final state only
69. Let L be the language of all strings, defined over = {0, 1} ending in 111. Which of the following strings are indistinguishable with respect to L with z being 11?
• 111, 101
• 100, 101
• 110, 101
• 010, 101
70. If we have a finite language and the number of states in the FA is n then the maximum number of letters in the each word of the language that will be accepted by the given FA will be:
• 1
• n-1
• n+1
• n
71. Which of the following statements is true about NFA with null string?
• Infinite states
• infinite set of letters
• Infinite set of transitions
• Transition of null string is allowed at any stage
72. Which of the following state is introduced while developing NFA for the closure of an FA?
• Simply an initial state
• Final state
• An initial state which should be final as well
• An initial state with loop for all letters
73. In order to make NFA for the union of FA1 and FA2, the new initial state should be linked to:
• initial and final states of FA1 and FA2 respectively
• initial states of both FAs
• initial state of FA1 only
• final and initial states of FA1 and FA2 respectively