Thursday, 31 December 2020

CS614-Data Warehousing Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH



CS614-Data Warehousing Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #MidTerm

1. Data warehouse stores ___
2. The ___ dimension represents data correctness
3. Which of the following is not a Data Quality Validation Technique?
  • Referential Integrity
  • Using Data Quality Rules
  • Data Histograming
  • Indexes
4. Which of the following is an example of Non-Additive Facts?
5. Which is the most complex type of transformation in the following?
6. Serious ___ involves decomposing and reassembling the data
7. ___ is the degree of utility and value the data has to support the enterprise processes that enable accomplishing enterprise objectives
8. In a decision support system ease of use is achieved by:
9. Assume a company with a multi-million row customer table i.e. n rows. Checking for Referential Integrity (RI), using a smart technique with some kind of tree data structure would require ___ time
10. Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical grain?
11. Most DWH implementations today do not use ___ enforced by the database, but as TQM methods improve overall data quality and database optimizers
12. Suppose in system A, the possible values of "Gender" attribute were "Male" & "Female", however in data warehouse, the values stored were "M" for male and "F" for female. The above scenario is an example of:
13. Development of data warehouse is hard because data sources are usually ___
14. A/an ___ is a collection of random transactional codes, flags and/or text attributes that are unrelated to any particular dimension
  • Junk dimension
  • Slowly changing dimension
  • Multi-valued dimension
  • Simple dimensions
15. ROLAP provides access to information via a relational database using
16. The typical availability of OLTP system is 24/7, while that of data warehouse is ___
  • 6/12
  • 7/12
  • 1/24
  • Twice a week
17. In ___ nested-loop join of quadratic time complexity does not hurt the performance
18. If actual data structure does not conform to documented formats then it is called:
19. Which of the following is not a CUBE operation?
20. The data has to be checked, cleansed and transformed into a ___ format to allow easy and fast access
  • unified
  • predicted
  • qualified
  • proactive
21. Which is not a/an characteristics of data quality?
22. The extent to which data is in appropriate languages, symbols, and units, and the definitions are clear is known as ___
23. In case of multiple sources for the same data element, we need to prioritize the source systems per element bases, the process is called
  • Ranking
  • Prioritization
  • Element Selection
  • Measurement Selection
24. In OLTP environments, the size of tables is relatively ___
  • Large
  • Fixed
  • Moderate
  • Small
25. Change Data Capture (CDC) can be challenging task because
26. ___ is the extent to which data is regarded as true and credible
27. The relation R will be in 2nd Normal Form if 
28. ___ is the degree to which data accurately reflects the real-world object that the data represents
29. Web scrapping is a process of applying ___ techniques to the web
30. In which class of aggregates AVERAGE function can be placed?
31. Which of the following is not an "Orr's Law of Data Quality"?
32. The ___ operator proves useful in more complex metrics applicable to the dimensions of timeliness and accessibility
  • Max
  • Min
  • Min or Max
  • None
33. Which is not a/an Data Quality Validation Technique?
34. Assume a company with a multi-million row customer table i.e. n rows. Checking for Referential Integrity (RI) using a naïve approach would take ___ time.
  • O(n)
  • O(1)
  • O(log n)
  • None
35. ___ breaks a table into multiple tables based upon common column values
36. Companies collect and record their own operational data, but at the same time they also use reference data obtained from ___ sources such as codes, prices etc.
37. Ad-hoc access means to run such queries which are known already
38. Relational databases allow you to navigate the data in ____ that is appropriate using the primary, foreign key structure within the data model.
39. DSS queries do not involve a primary key
  • True ✔
  • False
40. The need to synchronize data upon update is called
41. Taken jointly, the extract programs or naturally evolving systems formed a spider web, also known as 
42. Node of a B-Tree is stored in memory block and traversing a B-tree involves ___ page faults
43. Which statement is true for De-Normalization?
44. De-normalization normally speeds up
45. In horizontal splitting, we split a relation into multiple tables on the basis of 
46. For good decision making, data should be integrated across the organization to cross the LoB (Line of Business). This is to give the total view of organization from:
47. A data warehouse may include
  • Legacy systems
  • Only internal data sources
  • Privacy restrictions
  • Small data mart
48. Multidimensional databases typically use proprietary ___ format to store pre-summarized cube structures
  • File
  • Application
  • Aggregate
  • Database
49. All data is ___ of something real
  • I An abstraction
  • II A representation
Which of the following option is true?
  • I only
  • II only
  • Both I and II
  • None

Sunday, 27 December 2020

MTH603-Numerical Analysis Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH



MTH603-Numerical Analysis Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #MidTerm

1. If n x n matrices A and B are similar, then they have the ___ eigenvalues (with the same multiplicities)
  • same ✔
  • different
2. If the product of two matrices is an identity matrices that is AB = I, then which of the following is true?
  • A is transpose of B
  • A is inverse of B ✔
  • A is singular
  • B is singular
3. Iterative algorithms can be more rapid than direct methods.
  • False 
  • True ✔
4. While using Relaxation method, which of the following is the largest Residual for 1st iteration on the system; 2x + 3y = 1, 3x + 2y = -4?
  • -4 ✔
  • 3
  • 2
  • 1
5. Which of the following systems of linear equations has a strictly diagonally dominant coefficient matrix?
  • -2x+7x+2x=5, 6x-2x+3x=1, x+x-5x=-13
  • -2x+7x+2x=5, 6x-2x+3x=1, x+x-5x=-13
  • x+x-5x=-13, 6x-2x+3x=1, -2x+7x+2x=5
  • 6x-2x+3x=1, -2x+7x+2x=5, x+x-5x=-13 
6. In the context of Jacobi's method for finding Eigen values and Eigen vectors of a real symmetric matrix of order 2*2, if |-5| be its largest off-diagonal then which of the following will be its corresponding off-diagonal values of Orthogonal Matrix?
  • Cos(theta), -Cos(theta) 
  • Sin(theta), Cos(theta)
  • Sin(theta), -Sin(theta)
  • -Sin(theta), Cos(theta)
7. While using power method, from the resultant normalize vector
8. Every non-zero vector x is an eigenvector of the identity matrix with Eigen value___
  • one
  • two
  • three
  • four
9. Which of the following systems of linear equations has a strictly diagonally coefficient matrix?
  • -x+12x+5x=8, 9x+5x-3x=12, 2x-4x+7x=-15
  • 9x+5x-3x=12, -x+12x+5x=8, 2x-4x+7x=-15
  • 2x-4x+7x=-15, -x+12x+5x=8, 9x+5x-3x=12
  • 9x+5x-3x=12, 2x-4x+7x=-15, -x+12x+5x=8
10. Let[A] be a 3 x 3 real symmetric matrix with |a| be numerically the largest off-diagonal element of A, then we can construct orthogonal matrix S1 by Jacobi's method as
11. If the pivot element happens to be zero, then the i-th column elements are searched for the numerically ___ element
  • Smallest
  • Largest ✔
12. Exact solution of 2/3 is not exists
  • True ✔
  • False
13. A and its transpose matrix have ___ eigenvalues
  • same ✔
  • different
14. If n x n matrices A and B are similar, then they have the different eigenvalues (with the same multiplicities)
  • True ✔
  • False
15. Power method is applicable if the eigen values are real and distinct
  • True ✔
  • False
16. By using determinants, we can easily check that the solution of the given system of linear equation ___ and it is ___
  • exists, unique ✔
  • exists, consistent
  • trivial, unique
  • nontrivial, inconsistent
17. Power method is applicable if the eigen vectors corresponding to eigen values are linearly ___
  • independent ✔
  • dependent
18. When the condition of diagonal dominance becomes true in Jacobi's Method. Then its means that the method is ___
  • Stable
  • Unstable
  • Convergent ✔
  • Divergent
19. While using Jacobi method for the matrix

A = [11/41/3]
1/41/31/2
1/31/21/5
 the value of 'theta Θ' can be found as 
  • tan 2Θ = 2a13/a11-a33
20. While using Jacobi method for the matrix
A = [11/41/2]
1/41/31/4
1/21/41/5
and 'theta Θ=0.4480' the orthogonal matrix S1 will be given by
  • S1 = [cos 0.44800-sin 0.4480]
    010
    sin 0.44800cos 0.4480
21. Full pivoting, in fact, is more ___ than the partial pivoting
  • Easiest
  • Complicated ✔
22. While using the Gauss-Seidel Method for finding the solution of the system of equation, the following system
x + 2y + 2z = 3
x + 3y + 3z = 2
x + y + 5z = 2
  • x = 3 - 2y - 2z, y = 2/3 - x/3 - z, z = 2/5 - x/5 - y/5
23. By using determinants, we can easily check that the solution of the given system of linear equation exists and it is unique
  • True ✔
  • False 
24. While using Jacobi method for the matrix
A = [11/41/3]
1/41/31/2
1/31/21/5
and 'theta Θ= 0.7191' the orthogonal matrix S1 will be given by
  • S1 = [cos 0.71910-sin 0.7191]
    010
    sin 0.71910cos 0.7191
25. The linear equation x + y = 1 has ___ solution/solutions
  • no solution
  • unique ✔
  • infinite many
  • finite many
26. For a system of linear equations, the corresponding coefficient matrix has the value of determinant; |A|=-3, then which of the following is true?
  • The system has unique solution ✔
  • The system has finite multiple solutions
  • The system has infinite many solutions
  • The system has no solution
27. In Gauss-Jacobi's method, the corresponding elements of xi(r+1) replaces those of xir as soon as they become available
  • True
  • False ✔
28. An augmented matrix may also be used to find the inverse of a matrix by combining it with the ___ matrix
  • Inverse
  • Square
  • Identity ✔
  • None
29. Power method is applicable it the eigen vectors corresponding to eigen values are linearly independent
  • True ✔
  • False
30. While using the relaxation method for finding the solution of the below given system, which of the following increment will be introduced?
6x1 - 2x2 + 3x3 = 1
-2x1 + 7x2 + 2x3 = 5
x1 + x2 - 5x3 = -13
  • dx3 = R3/a33
31. Let |A| be a 3 x 3 real symmetric matrix with |a23| be the numerically largest off-diagonal element then using Jacobi's method the value of theta can be found by
  • tan 2 Θ = 2a23/a22-a33 
32. The linear equation; 0x+0y=2 has ___ solution/solutions
  • unique
  • no solution ✔
  • infinite many
  • finite many
33. The root of the equation xex-5=0 is bounded in the interval
  • [-2, 1]
  • [-1, 1]
  • [0, 1] ✔
  • [1, 2]
34. Which of the following is a forward difference table for the given values of x and y?
x   0.1   0.5   0.9
y   0.003   0.148   0.370
  • xyΔyΔ2y
    0.10.0030.1450.077
    0.50.1480.222
    0.90.37
35. In ___ method, a system is reduced to an equivalent diagonal form using elementary transformations
  • Jacobi's 
  • Gauss-Seidel
  • Relaxation
  • Gaussian elimination ✔
36. If the determinant of a matrix A is not equal to zero then the system of equations will have ___
  • a unique solution ✔
  • many solutions
  • infinite many solutions
  • None
37. A 3 x 3 identity matrix have three and ___ eigen values
  • same ✔
  • different
38. Numerical methods for finding the solution of the system of equations are classified as direct and ___ methods
  • Indirect
  • Iterative ✔
  • Jacobi
  • None
39. Which of the following is a forward difference table for the given values of x and y?
x   0.1   0.7   1.3
y   0.003   0.248   0.697

  • xyΔyΔ2y
    0.10.0030.2450.204
    0.70.2480.449
    1.30.697
40. While using Relaxation method, which of the following is the Residuals for 1st iteration on the system; 2x + 3y = 1, 3x + 2y = 4?
  • (2, 3)
  • (3, -2)
  • (-2, 3)
  • (1, 4) ✔

Saturday, 26 December 2020

CS609-System Programming Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH




CS609-System Programming Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #MidTerm

1. Bit no. ___ of EFLAG is used for alignment check
  • 12
  • 14
  • 15
  • 18 ✔
2. In ___ each byte is needed to be encapsulated in start and end
  • Synchronous Communication
  • Asynchronous Communication ✔
  • Both a and b
  • Serial and Hybrid Communication
3. Base address of LPT1 port in BIOS Data Area is ___
  • 08:40
  • 40:08 ✔
  • 40:90
  • 60:40
4. An I/O device cannot be directly connected to the buses so they generally require a ___ to be placed between the CPU and I/O device
  • Controller ✔
  • Pipeline
  • Data Bus
  • I/O Bus
5. To set the Interrupt Vector Table (IVT) means that to change the ___ sized interrupt vector within the IVT
  • Quad Word
  • Double Word ✔
  • Byte
  • Nibble
6. DB25 connector is used to connect ___
  • Address Bus
  • PPI ✔
  • Mobile
  • CPU
7. In self test mode the output of UART is routed to its input
  • True ✔
  • False
8. Bit number ___ of port 64H Status register used for input buffer full
  • 0
  • 1 ✔
  • 2
  • 3
9. The device which requires timing signal is called ___
  • Synchronous ✔
  • Asynchronous
  • Active
  • Un-Active
10. The ___ register of Real Time Clock is used to enable interrupt on various events like alarm time and time-up duration
  • Status Register C
  • Status Register A
  • Status Register D
  • Status Register B ✔
11. DTE is ___
  • Data Terminal Equipment ✔
  • Data Transmitting Equipment
  • Dual Terminal Equipment
  • Data Termination Equivalence
12. First two bytes of any Far address contains ___ address
  • Segment
  • Offset ✔
  • Both Segment and Offset
  • NULL
13. In the context of Keyboard Interface, ___ means Typematic rate will be sent in next byte
  • 0xFF
  • 0xF3 ✔
  • 0xED
  • 0xE5
14. A software interrupt does not require ___
  • Memory
  • An Entry in IVT
  • EOI(End of Interrupt) ✔
  • Interrupt number
15. Keyboard buffer is ___ bytes in size
  • 8
  • 16
  • 32 ✔
  • 64
16. The address of partition block on hard disk is ___
  • head # = 1, track# = 0 and sector # = 1 ✔
  • head # = 0, track# = 0 and sector # = 0
  • head # = 1, track# = 1 and sector # = 1
  • head # = 0, track# = 0 and sector # = 1
17. There are ___ main types of serial communication
  • 2 ✔
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
18. A code 0xFA on the port 60H (Keyboard Interface) indicates that the byte has been received ___
  • Properly ✔
  • With Errors
  • With acknowledgement
  • Duplicate values
19. Bit number ___ of port 64H Keyboard Status Register indicate status of Time-Out error during output
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6 ✔
  • 7
20. Clock status register ___ is main control register
  • A
  • B ✔
  • C
  • D
21. There are differences in mechanism of invocation of interrupt and event driven procedures
  • Yes ✔
  • No
22. A compiled TSR program has ___ extension
  • .Doc
  • .COM
  • .XLS
  • .C ✔
23. ___ interrupt is used to read time from Real Time Clock
  • 1A/02H ✔
  • 1A/03H
  • 1A/04H
  • 1A/05H
24. If UART is running in Self-Test Mode, then all the input from the UART is directed to the ___
  • Keyboard
  • Upper part of the screen
  • Lower part of the screen ✔
  • Printer
25. We have set the bit No. 7 of IMR (Interrupt Mask Register) to unmask the Interrupt so that interrupt ___ can occur at ___ line
  • 0xf, IRQ 7 ✔
  • 0xa, IRQ 6
  • 0x8, IRQ 5
  • 0x6, IRQ 2
26. keep() function has ___ parameters while exit() function has ___ parameters
  • 0, 2
  • 1, 2
  • 2, 0
  • 2, 1 ✔
27. In Keyboard Status Byte, bit no. 2 and 3 are used for CTRL and ALT keys respectively. Which of the following condition is used to check that CTRL + ALT keys are pressed Where: 
unsigned char far * scr = (unsigned char far *)(0x00400017)
  • if(((*scr) & 12) == 12) ✔
  • if(((*scr) & 8) == 8)
  • if(((*scr) & 4) == 4)
  • if(((*scr) & 2) == 2)
28. The BIOS data area in memory starts at the address of ___
  • 0020:0000
  • 0030:0000
  • 0040:0000 ✔
  • 0050:0000
29. Select the correct option that does NOT belong to the uses of I/O Controller
  • Listen sound tracks from PC headphones
  • Sending document to printer for printing
  • Sending graphics to VGA card for displaying on the monitor
  • Applying security options on storage media ✔
30. The amount of memory above conventional memory can be determined using the service
  • 15H/88H ✔
  • 13H/88H
  • 11H/88H
  • 17H/88H
31. DMA stands for ___
  • Direct Memory Access ✔
32. Standard PC operates in two modes in terms of memory which are
  • Real mode and protected mode ✔
33. UART stands for ___
  • Universal Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter ✔
34. Usually interrupt procedures are reentrant procedures especially those interrupt procedure compiled using C language compiler are reentrant
  • True ✔
35. Interrupt Vector Table (IVT) in short is a ___ bytes sized table
  • 1024 ✔
36. Hardware Interrupts are ___
  • Preemptive
  • Non-Preemptive ✔
37. Timer interrupt is a ___
  • Hardware Interrupt ✔
  • Software Interrupt
38. Int 14H ___ can be used to set the line parameter of the UART or COM port
  • Service # 0 ✔
39. The keyboard makes use of interrupt number ___ for its input operations
  • 9 ✔
  • 10
  • 11
  • 12
40. In case of synchronous communication a timing signal is required to identify the start and end of a bit
  • True ✔
  • False
41. Register can be used to divide frequency is ___
  • Counter Register ✔
  • Accumulator Register
42. Only ___ ports are important from programming point of view
  • 70 and 71H ✔
43. Which port is known as Data Port ___
  • 60H ✔
  • 61H
  • 64H
  • 69H
44. LPTs can be swapped
  • True ✔ 
  • False
45. PPI is used to perform parallel communication
  • True ✔
  • False
46. ___ is used to control the printer via the BIOS
  • Int 16H
  • Int 17H ✔
47. ___ bit is cleared to indicate the low nibble is being sent
  • D1
  • D2
  • D4 ✔
48. DSR stands for ___
  • Data set ready ✔
49. There are two main types of interrupts namely ___
  • Hardware interrupts and Software interrupts ✔
50. To set the interrupt vector  means to change the double word sized interrupt vector within IVT
  • True ✔
  • False
51. The service number is usually placed in the ___ register
  • AL
  • CL
  • AH ✔
  • AX
52. The service ___ is called the keyboard hook service
  • 15H/2FH
  • 15H/4FH ✔
  • 15H/FFH
53. The BIOS interrupt ___ can be used to configure RTC
  • 1AH ✔
  • 2AH
54. The interval timer can operate in ___ modes
  • Five
  • Seven 
  • Six ✔
55. ___ is Disk interrupt
  • 10H
  • 13H ✔
56. PPI stands for
  • Peripheral Programmable interface ✔
57. Int ___ is used to control the printer via the BIOS
  • 17H ✔
  • 18H
  • 20 H
58. Counter register can be used to divide clock signal
  • True ✔
  • False
59. DCE stands for ___
  • Data communication equipment ✔
60. ___ is used to identify the cause of interrupt
  • Interrupt ID Register
  • PC Register
61. The bit number ___ of the coprocessor control word is the interrupt enable flag
  • 7 ✔
  • 8
62. The output on the monitor is controlled by a controller called ___
  • Video controller ✔
  • Bus controller
63. The keyboard input character scan code is received at ___ port
  • 60H ✔
  • 62H
64. ___ is LED control byte
  • 0xFD
  • 0xED ✔
  • 0xFF
65. BPB stands for ___
  • BIOS parameter block ✔
66. The function of I/O controller is to provide ___
  • I/O control signals
  • Buffering
  • Error Correction and Detection
  • All of the given ✔
67. IVT is a table containing ___ byte entries each of which is a far address of an interrupt service routine
  • 2
  • 4 ✔
  • 8
68. Each paragraph in keep function is ___ bytes in size
  • 4
  • 8
  • 16 ✔
69. Interrupt 9 usually reads the ___ from keyboard
  • ASCII code
  • Scan code ✔

Monday, 21 December 2020

CS619 Final Project Guide Helping Material for CS619 | SSWT

Dear students!
In this post we will tell you some guidelines about CS619 Project. As we know that the students of BSCS/BSSE/BSIT in 7th/8th Semester and MIT/MSCS in 3rd/4th Semester have to select CS619 Project. This project is a must to get Degree. It carries 6 credit hours. So, here we will guide you with all steps regarding the Project.



PHASES OF CS619 PROJECT

There are 4 phases:
  1. GATHERING & ANALYSIS REQUIREMENTS
  2. ANALYSIS & DESIGN PHASE
  3. TEST PHASE
  4. FINAL DELIVERABLE
Sr. No. Phases Deliverables Template
1. Gathering & Analysis Requirements SRS Document SRS Template
2. Analysis & Design Phase Design Document DD Template
3. Test Phase Test Code files None
4. Final Deliverables
  • Complete Project coding & Database
  • Final Report
  • Final Presentation

PHASE-1 Gathering and Analysis Requirements

In this phase you are required to make SRS Document.

What is SRS?


SRS stands for Software Requirements Specification. It is a detailed document that tells about how the system is expected to perform. In this document, following topics are covered:
  • Scope of the Project
  • Software Requirements
    •   Functional requirements
    •   Non-Functional requirements
  • Use Case Diagram
  • Usage Scenarios
  • Adopted Methodology
  • Work Plan
To get detailed information about SRS, follow the link: How to make SRS?

PHASE-2 Analysis and Design Phase

In this phase you are required to make Design Document.

What is Design Document?


Design document is a collection of narrative and graphical documentations. It tells about how the system should be built. It gives guidance about the architecture of the software project. In this document, following topics are covered:
  • Introduction of Design Document
  • Entity Relationship Diagram
  • Sequence Diagrams
  • Architecture Design Diagram
  • Class Diagram
  • Database Design Diagram
  • Interface Design
  • Test Cases
To get the detailed information about SRS, follow the link: will be uploaded soon

PHASE-3 Test Phase

In this phase you are given a test phase document, in which the details of the system are given. You are required to implement the details in the form of code. You have to add functionality in the test phase. Like: Registration, Login, Contact, Captcha etc. It is up to the instructor that he/she can give you test phase related to your project or it can be totally opposite to your selected project. So, prepare yourself for any kind of test.

To get the detailed information about Test Phase, follow the link: will be uploaded soon

PHASE- 4 Final Deliverables

In this phase you are required to make complete Project coding with Database. Also you have to make the following:
  • Final Report &
  • Final Presentation
To get the detailed information about Final Report and Presentation, follow the link: will be uploaded soon

Sunday, 13 December 2020

MGT610-Buisness Ethics Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH



MGT610-Buisness Ethics Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #MidTerm

1. In which year Justice Department charged the accounting firm of Arthur Anderson for obstruction of justice?
  • 2000
  • 2001
  • 2002 ✔
  • 2003
2. To which of the following we cannot assign monetary value?
  • Friendship
  • Love
  • Peace
  • All of the above ✔
3. A medicine for the patients of river blindness was developed by which one of the country?
  • UK
  • US ✔
  • German
  • China
4. Which of the following is false of Nozick's theory of justice?
  • Theory is historical ✔
  • Theory is no patterned
  • Theory is redistributive
  • None of the above
5. Socialist view on distribution is best described as:
  • From each according to his ability, to each according to his needs ✔
  • The benefits a person receives should be proportional to his contribution
  • From each they choose, to each as they are chosen
  • Always treat humanity as an end in itself rather than as a means
6. Who considers it wrong to tax someone to provide benefits to someone else?
  • Libertarian ✔
  • Socialist
  • Capitalist
  • None
7. Which one of the following generally refers to matters that are more serious than fairness?
  • Justice ✔
  • Right
  • Duty
  • None
8. Which one of these is a graphic demonstration that rational individual choices do not necessarily result in rational collective choices?
  • Game theory
  • Prisoner's dilemma
  • Moral Reasoning ✔
  • Moral responsibility
9. Weighing Social Costs and Benefits is a technique used in?
  • Justice concept
  • Right concept
  • Caring concept
  • Utilitarianism concept ✔
10. Through utilitarianism offers a clear-cut method of calculating morality. What are the number of problems identified in this method?
  • 5 ✔
  • 4
  • 3
  • 2
11. Which of the following is TRUE in free market economy?
  • Prices are controlled by law
  • There will be no advertising ✔
  • There will be no monopolies 
  • The government allocates resources
12. Which of the following is/are characteristics of Economic freedom?
  • Absence of government coercion
  • Constraint on the production distribution
  • Maintain liberty itself
  • All of the given ✔
13. Which of the following use a command system?
  • Communitarian system ✔
  • Free market system
  • Pure free market system
  • None
14. Which of the following is/are classification of countries with respect to economy?
  • Free
  • Mostly free
  • Mostly unfree
  • All of the given options ✔
15. Which of the following is a degree of competition?
  • Perfect competition
  • Monopoly
  • Oligopoly
  • All of the above ✔
16. The kind of care that is owed to those with whom we have special concrete relationships is known as?
  • Utilitarian standards
  • Standards of justice
  • Standards of caring ✔
  • None
17. According to Aristotle, which of the following enable humans to act in accordance with their specific purpose?
  • Moral responsibility
  • Moral Virtues ✔
  • Moral standards
  • None
18. How many considerations be kept in mind when to determine that what are the moral things to do on any particular occasion?
  • 2
  • 4
  • 3 ✔
  • None
19. Every person should be given equal shares of a society's or a group's benefits and burdens referred as?
  • Utilitarianism
  • Egalitarianism ✔
  • Socialism
  • None
20. What is the number of characteristics that differentiate between moral and non-moral standards?
  • 5 ✔
  • 4
  • 2
  • 1
21. Which of the following laws have no concern with morality?
  • Parking laws
  • Dress codes law
  • Both a & b ✔
  • None
22. Which of the following purpose that nations should not artificially limit imports nor artificially promote exports?
  • Economic freedom
  • Free trade ✔
  • Economic freedom index
  • Invisible hand
23. Which one of the following is not a feature of moral standard?
  • Prohibit
  • Value
  • Condemn
  • All of the given ✔
24. Carol Gilligan three stages of moral development include all except?
  • Progressing from selfish
  • Conventional morality
  • Principled morality
  • Development psychology ✔
25. Who has used the theory of natural right by Locke to argue for free market?
  • Adam smith
  • John Locke
  • Friedrich A. Hayek ✔
  • Alasdair Macintyre
26. Idea of a precise quantitative method for decision making for decision making is most fully realized in
  • Bentham ✔
  • James Rachel's
  • Carol Gilligan
  • Henry Fayol
27. Literally the word ethics means:
  • Understanding human nature
  • Study of morality ✔
  • Study of properties of chemical substances
  • None
28. In which year Adam Smith asserted that the wealth of a nation consisted of the goods and services available to its citizens?
  • 1676
  • 1776 ✔
  • 1876
  • 1976
29. Kant's moral philosophy is based on which of the following?
  • Consequences of action ✔
  • Consequences of reasons
  • False pretenses
  • Human reason
30. ___ is defined as Tendency to make ethical choices only on the basis of what looks right or reasonable according to one's own belief or value system
  • Ethical Relativism ✔
  • Cultural Relativism
  • Descriptive Relativism
  • Epistemological Relativism
31. The categorical imperative incorporates two criteria for determining moral right and wrong. Which of the following is one of the criteria?
  • Relativism
  • Consistency
  • Inconsistency
  • Reversibility ✔
32. In a command economy, all decisions are taken by the:
  • People
  • Government ✔
  • Voters
  • Workers
33. Which one of the following is not considered as a moral standard?
  • Maximize social utility
  • Respect moral rights
  • Exercise caring
  • Undistribute benefits and burdens ✔
34. Which of the following is considered as the basis of cost-benefit analysis?
  • Ethical relativism
  • Utilitarianism ✔
  • Behaviorism
  • Rationalism
35. Which one of the following is a source of absorbing moral standards?
  • Family
  • Friends
  • School
  • All of the above ✔
36. Which of the following is Not the feature of perfect competition?
  • There are numerous buyers and sellers, none of whom has a substantial share of the market
  • All buyers and sellers can not freely and immediately enter or leave the market ✔
  • All buyers and sellers can freely and immediately enter or leave the market
  • All buyers and sellers are utility maximizers
37. Utilitarianism lies under which of the following ethical theories?
  • Virtue
  • Intuitionism
  • Deontological
  • Teleological ✔
38. Which one of the following is a component of free market systems?
  • Private property system ✔
  • Involuntary exchange system
  • Command system
  • None
39. Every person has a right to freedom from coercion that takes priority over all other rights and values is known as?
  • Karl's principle
  • Nozick's principle ✔
  • Blanc's principle
  • None

MTH601-Operations Research Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH



MTH601-Operations Research Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #MidTerm

1. While solving a LP by Simplex method, which of the following corresponds to corner points of the feasible region in Graphical method?
  • non-feasible solution
  • basic feasible solution ✔
  • non-basic feasible solution
  • non-negative solution
2. About which of the following it is true that, "they only signify with the passage of time, the beginning and ending of some activities under no consumption of resources"?
  • project
  • nodes
  • dummy ✔
  • branch
3. If we increase the inventory, then the shortage cost will decrease and the carrying cost will ___
  • remain constant
  • increase ✔
  • also decrease
  • uncertain
4. Wilson's model (Purchasing model with no shortages) is of the ___ type
  • Probabilistic
  • Deterministic ✔
5. In a Project Management, if the Critical activities of a network are delayed then ___
  • project finish time will have to extend
  • project cost will increase
  • more resources have to employed
  • All above choices are equivalent ✔
6. If the economic order quantity and the annual demand of a product are 2500 and 5000 units respectively, then WITHOUT any shortage the time between the consecutive orders is ___ months
  • 02
  • 2.50
  • 0.50 ✔
  • 1.50
7. While solving a Linear Programming problem, the first step is ___
  • to obtain alternate solutions
  • to obtain basic feasible solutions
  • formulation of the problem ✔
  • model building
8. A linear programming model has three basic components; the decision variables, the Objective function and ___
  • constraints ✔
  • unrestricted variables
  • feasible solution
  • artificial variable
9. Which of the following is the major assumed difference between the models of Purchasing and Manufacturing without shortage?
  • Replacement rate ✔
  • Shortage
  • Demand
  • Item, Setup and Holding Costs
10. For a development project, if its Standard Normal variable = 1.38, expected and the scheduled durations of the project are 100 and 110 days respectively, then Variance in the project length is ___
  • -7.246
  • -52.50
  • 52.50
  • 7.246 ✔
11. The draw back of the Graphical method to solve a LP is that the problem of ___ can not be handled by this
  • higher dimension(n>2)
  • low dimension(n<3) ✔
  • duality
  • degeneracy
12. In the phase of Late Start and Late Finish, to find the Critical Path in a network flow diagram, which of the following will be taken as latest finish time of the final event?
  • Early Start of the final event
  • Early finish of final event
  • Late start of the final event
  • Expected time of final event ✔
13. In resource leveling when two or more jobs compete for same resources, first try to allocate an activity, which is of ___ duration and need to the activity which having next ___ duration
  • most likely, pessimistic
  • minimum, maximum ✔
  • maximum, minimum
  • optimistic, most likely
14. By putting the replacement rate 'R → infinity' in the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) of Manufacturing Model with allowed Shortage, then the result is ___
  • EOQ of Purchasing Model without Shortage
  • EOQ of Manufacturing Model without Shortage
  • EOQ of Purchasing Model with allowed Shortage ✔
  • invariant
15. Which of the following would be the objective of the efficiency of a certain air conditioning system depending upon temperature 'x', pressure 'y', moisture 'w' and cross-sectional area of outlet 'u'?
  • Minimization ✔
  • Inflection
  • Average
  • Maximization
16. In a project, a network diagram shows the ___ relations of the inter related activities along with their corresponding activity times.
  • deterministic and probabilistic
  • precedence or succession ✔
  • union and intersection
  • dummy and artificial
17. In Wilson's model, Total cost = ___
  • Item cost + holding cost + shortage cost + setup cost
  • Item cost + holding cost + shortage cost
  • Holding cost + shortage cost + setup cost
  • Item cost + set up cost + holding cost ✔
18. For a development project, if its standard deviation of project length = 8, expected and scheduled duration of the complete project are 50 and 45 days respectively, then which of the following will be the Standard Normal Variable of the project?
  • -1.7677
  • -0.625
  • 0.625 ✔
  • 1.7677
19. A/An ___ is the collection of inter related activities in particular sequence to completion
  • node
  • event ✔
  • project
  • branch
20. For a development project, if its Standard Normal variable = 1.38, expected and the schedule durations of the project are 100 and 110 days respectively, then the Standard Deviation in the project length is ___
  • 7.246
  • -7.246 ✔
  • -52.50
  • 52.50
21. If for path 1-3-4 time is 5+3=8, for path 1-2-3-4 time is 6+7+3=16 days and for path 1-2-4 time is 6+6 = 12 days, then which of the following is true
  • 1-3-4 is critical path
  • 1-2-4 is critical path
  • 1-2-3-4 is critical path ✔
  • 1-4 is critical path
22. In project Management, Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is based on ___ times
  • deterministic
  • probabilistic ✔
  • stochastic
  • serial
23. Which of the following is the major objective of the ABC analysis of inventory?
  • To fulfill the demand of items
  • To replace the required items in proper time
  • To control the inventories
  • To classify the items in different categories ✔
24. Which of the following phases are performed to find the critical path in CPM?
  • Forward and Backward (Early and Late finish program) ✔
  • Program Evaluation and Review
  • Resource Scheduling and Allocation
  • Precedence and succession
25. Which of the following value is correct for the expected time of an activity having optimistic, pessimistic and most likely times as 4, 8 and 6 days respectively?
  • 6.66 days
  • 9.33 days
  • 6 days ✔
  • 4.66 days
26. Which of the following category of items in ABC analysis needs special attention by the management?
  • A category ✔
  • B category
  • C category
  • All categories need equal and fair attention
27. Which of the following correspond to the practical limitations of available resources while modeling a real life situation into a linear program?
  • Objective function
  • Constraints
  • Decision variables ✔
  • Linear function
28.While identifying the Critical Path of a network flow diagram, the Late Start and Late Finish phase confirms that project start time is ___
  • serial
  • zero ✔
  • infinity
  • arbitrary
29. In PERT, the possible variation in activity times is measured from Standard Deviation which is ___ of the difference between Pessimistic and Optimistic times
  • one sixth ✔
  • one fourth
  • one third
  • one fifth
30. Which of the following property ensures that the decision variables can be divided into any fractional levels so that the rational (fractional) values for the decision variables are permitted?
  • Deterministic
  • Additivity
  • Proportionality
  • Divisibility ✔
31. Which of the following is the objective of Project Management by using PERT and CPM methods, for any project subject to resource constraints?
  • To minimize the project time
  • To maximize the total project profit
  • To minimize the total project cost ✔
  • To minimize the resource constraints
32. If we increase the inventory, then the shortage cost will ___
  • remain constant
  • increase
  • decrease ✔
  • uncertain
33. In PERT, the possible variation in activity times can be measured from ___ of the corresponding Beta Distribution
  • Variance
  • Mean
  • Expected Time
  • Standard Deviation ✔
34. In the phase of Early Start and Early Finish, to find the Critical Path in a network flow diagram, the computations are proceeded from ___ to the final event
  • bottom to top
  • right to left
  • left to right ✔
  • top to bottom
35. In a network flow diagram, for an activity (i, j) of duration of three days, if its earliest start time is of two days then which of the following will be its early finish time?
  • six days
  • one day
  • one and half day
  • five days ✔
36. In an optimization problem, we seek for maximizing or minimizing a specific quantity, called the ___
  • decision variables
  • constraints
  • feasible solution
  • objective function ✔
37. Modeling of a Linear Programming problem from a real life world is a/an ___
  • art ✔
  • science
  • engineering
  • technology
38. In a Linear Programming problem which of the following condition is compulsory?
  • Least Objective function needs to be linear
  • Least constraints need to be linear
  • Both Objective function and constraints need to be linear ✔
  • Neither objective nor constraints to be linear
39. In a network flow diagram, the precedence relationship among the activities are indicated through ___
  • project
  • branch
  • dummy ✔
  • nodes
40. Which of the following is true about the Manufacturing model without Shortage?
  • Demand rate = Replacement rate
  • Demand rate > Replacement rate
  • Demand rate < Replacement rate ✔
  • None of the above

Monday, 7 December 2020

CS501-Advanced Computer Architecture Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH



CS501-Advanced Computer Architecture Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #MidTerm

1. SPARC uses a simple set of ___ instruction formats.
  • 64-bit ✔
  • 12-bit
  • 16-bit
  • 32-bit
2. From an n bit control word we may have ___ bit signal values
  • 2^n ✔
  • n^2
  • n x n
  • 2 x n
3. While executing the RTL instruction A←R3, which of the given below control signals will be activated?
  • LA, R3in ✔
  • R3out
  • LA, R3out
  • R3in, Lout
4. The multiplexer ___ is used to decide which value is transferred to be written back to the register file
  • MP2
  • MP3
  • MP4
  • MP5 ✔
5. ___ is defined as the number of instructions processed per second
  • Memory Access
  • Throughput ✔
  • ALU Operations
  • Latency
6. The ALSU function "INC2" increments the ___ by 2 and the output is stored in the buffer register ___
  • PC, A
  • IR, A
  • PC, C ✔
  • IR, C
7. The third stage of the Pipelined version of SRC is:
  • Instruction Fetch
  • ALU operation ✔
  • Memory access
  • Register write
8. In ___ only one field is required which specifies the type of operation
  • 3-Address instruction
  • 2-Address instruction
  • 1-Address instruction 
  • 0-Address instruction ✔
9. ___ usually involves calculating the target address and evaluating a condition
  • Load/Store instructions
  • Branch instructions ✔
  • ALU instructions
  • Pipelined SRC
10. In the 3-bus Implementation for the SRC, all the special purpose as well as the general purpose registers have ___ read port(s) ___ write port(s)
  • one, two
  • two, one ✔
  • two, two
  • three, one
11. Which of the given techniques is used for overlapping the multiple instructions at one time?
  • Pipelining ✔
  • Branch delay
  • Data forwarding
  • SRC
12. An "assembler" that runs one processor and translates an assembly language program written for another processor into the machine language of the other processor is called a ___
  • compiler
  • cross assembler ✔
  • debugger
  • linker
13. To implement an N-bit barrel shifter in form of a combinational circuit, we require N ___
  • multiplexers ✔
  • de-multiplexers
  • selectors
  • tri-state buffers
14. The SRC uses a hazard detection unit. The hazard can be resolved using either pipeline stalls or by ___
  • Data forwarding ✔
  • Data compressing
  • Instruction forwarding
  • Instruction handling
15. What functionality is performed by the instruction "lar R3, 36" of SRC?
  • It will load the register R3 with the contents of the memory location M [PC+36]
  • It will load the register R3 with the relative address itself (PC+36) ✔
  • It will store the register R3 content to the memory location M [PC+36]
  • It will left rotate the value of R3, 36 times and will store the result into R3
16. To connect together five (5) m-bit registers in a point-to-point scheme. ___ connection are required.
  • 25
  • 30
  • 20 ✔
  • 24
17. Which one of the following is the correct RTL description for sign extension of an 8-bit constant?
  • (8⍺IR<7>©IR<7..0>) ✔
  • (8⍺IR<8>©IR<8..1>)
  • (8⍺IR<7>©IR<8..0>)
  • (8⍺IR<8>©IR<7..0>)
18. In the case of a constant, variable, and address or (label-PC), the unconditional jump ranges ___
  • from -128 to 127 ✔
  • from -64 to 63
  • from -256 to 255
  • from -32768 to 32767
19. Which of the following branch instruction has a condition which is always executed?
  • JZ
  • JUMP ✔
  • JPL
  • JMI
20. The instruction "PUSH A" is an example of ___
  • 0-address instruction ✔
  • 1-address instruction
  • 2-address instruction
  • 3-address instruction
21. ___ instruction is used to load a register with an immediate data value
  • la ✔
  • lar
  • ld
  • ldr
22. All of the below given processors enjoy Little-Endian storage format except ___
  • EAGLE
  • Modified Eagle 
  • Falcon-A ✔
  • Falcon-E
23. CISC stands for?
  • Computer instruction set compiler
  • Complex instruction set compiler ✔
  • Complex internal system computer
  • Complex instruction system compiler
24. ret and jmi both belong to ___ type instructions
  • Arithmetic
  • Control ✔
  • Data Transfer
  • Logic
25. ___ control signal enables the input to the PC for receiving a value that is currently on the internal processor bus.
  • LPC ✔
  • INC4
  • LC 
  • Cout
26. In case of SRC processor, bits ___ of IR (instruction register) are reserved for the op-code
  • 0 to 4 
  • 11 to 15
  • 27 to 31 ✔
  • 59 to 63
27. Which one of the following registers holds the instruction that is being executed?
  • Accumulator
  • Address Mask
  • Instruction Register ✔
  • Program Counter
28. In any instruction the possible locations of the source operands can be ___
  • CPU Registers
  • Memory Cells
  • I/O Locations
  • All of the given ✔
29. Which of the following is not a part of processor state?
  • IR
  • PC
  • Stack ✔
  • Registers
30. ___ hazard occurs when attempting to access the same resource in different ways at the same time
  • Branch
  • Data
  • Structural ✔
  • Instruction

Saturday, 5 December 2020

CS607-Artificial Intelligence Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH



CS607-Artificial Intelligence Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #MidTerm

1. In ___ search(es), we only have one agent searching solution space to find goal state
  • Depth first search
  • Breadth first search
  • Progressive search
  • All of the given ✔
2. Solving 32-bit computer words using genetic algorithm we want a string in which all the bits are ones. We count the 1 bits in each word and exit if any of the words having all 32 bits set to 1 by using ___
  • initial population
  • evaluation function ✔
  • mutation
  • search space
3. The initial state and the legal moves for each side define the ___ for the game
  • search tree ✔
  • game tree
  • state-space search
  • forest
4. Which of the following are the main phrases of the linear sequence?
  • Code
  • System evaluation
  • Planning
  • All of the above ✔
5. ___ is used when the facts of the case are likely to change after some time.
  • Inductive reasoning
  • Non-Monotonic reasoning ✔
  • Analogical reasoning
  • Common-sense reasoning
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the drawbacks of depth first search?
  • Can run forever in search spaces with infinite length paths
  • Does not guarantee finding the shallowest goal
  • Requires the tree to be a complete tree
  • Cut-off depth is similar so time complexity is more ✔
7. In eight queen problem for the given sequence 1 6 5 3 2 5 3 7 the position of Q4 queen is at ___
  • fourth column and third row ✔
  • second column and third row
  • first column and third row
  • eight column and second
8. In ___ we may have multiple agents searching for solution in the same solution space
  • Adversarial search ✔
  • Depth first search
  • Breadth first search
  • Progressive deepening
9. Which of the following is/are considered being trait(s) of an expert?
  • They possess specialized knowledge in a certain area
  • They possess experience in the given area
  • They can provide, upon elicitation, an explanation of their decisions
  • All of the given ✔
10. In CLIPS, the Defrule construct is used to add ___
  • rules ✔ 
  • facts
  • principles
  • All of the above
11. Every graph can be converted into a tree
  • True ✔
  • False
12. Reasoning in backward chaining is known as:
  • Data-driven reasoning
  • Rule-driven reasoning 
  • Intelligence-driven reasoning
  • Goal-driven reasoning ✔
13. The simple idea behind ___ is that if we can reach a specific node through more than one different paths then we shall take the path with the minimum cost
  • Dynamic programming ✔
  • Estimates
  • Progressive deepening
  • Beam search
14. The problem is to place 8 queens on a chess board by using genetic algorithm, so that none of them can attack the other. A chess board can be considered as a plain board with ___ columns and ___ rows
  • eight, six
  • eight, seven
  • eight, eight ✔
  • eight, nine
15. Progressive deepening emulates BFS using DFS
  • True ✔
  • False
16. Genetic algorithms use ___
  • parallel approach ✔
  • sequential approach
  • pipelining
  • all of the mentioned
17. Expert system technique where a hypothesis is given at the beginning and the inference engine proceeds to ask the user questions about selected facts until the hypothesis is either confirmed or denied
  • Network Knowledge ✔
  • Data mining
  • Backward chaining
  • Forward chaining
18. The component of the system that performs inference is called:
  • inference engine ✔
  • inference object
  • inference manager
  • inference class
19. LISP was created by?
  • Alan Turing
  • Marvin Minsky
  • John McCarthy ✔
  • Allen Newell and Herbert Simon
20. To which depth does the alpha-beta pruning can be applied?
  • 10 states
  • 8 states
  • 6 states
  • Any depth ✔
21. "Specialized knowledge" in human experts is referred to as ___ when it comes to an expert system
  • Affirmation knowledge
  • Domain knowledge ✔
  • Reasoning knowledge
  • Predicate engine
22. A natural language generation program must decide ___
  • what to say
  • when to say something
  • why it is being used
  • both what to say & when to say something ✔
23. ___ combine predicates and quantifiers to represent information
  • Objects
  • Subjects
  • Formulae ✔
  • Constants
24. In CNF(Conjunctive normal form) the outermost structure is made up of ___ and inner units called clauses are made up of ___
  • conjunctions, disjunctions ✔
  • disjunctions, conjunctions
  • resolution, refutation
  • refutation, resolution
25. The formulae (∃x)(Person(x) ∧ father(x, Ahmed) ) can be translated in simple words and read as
  • there exists some person, x who is Ahmed's father✔
  • for all person, x who is Ahmed's father
  • there exists some person, x who is Ahmed's daughter
  • for all person, x who is Ahmed's daughter
26. Adversarial search problems uses ___
  • competitive environment
  • cooperative environment ✔
  • neither competitive nor cooperative environment
  • an only competitive and cooperative environment
27. Which of the following command is correct for adding numbers in CLIPS?
  • CLIPS> (3+4)
  • CLIPS> (+ 3 4) ✔
  • CLIPS> (3 4 +)
  • CLIPS> (+ 3 4 +)
28. A fact or proposition is divided into two parts and are represented as ___
  • object and logic ✔
  • predicate and argument
  • reasoning and variable
  • algebra and calculus
29. ___ describes objects, rather than processes. That is known about a situation, e.g. it is sunny today, and cherries are red
  • Procedural knowledge
  • Declarative knowledge ✔
  • Meta knowledge
  • Heuristic knowledge
30. ___ are able to override the normal rules in expert systems
  • Meta rules
  • Conflict resolution rules 
  • Forward chain rules ✔
  • Backward chain rules