Tuesday, 24 March 2020

MTH401-Differential Equations Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


MTH401-Differential Equations Quiz MCQS #Objective #Questions #FinalTerm

1. The non-trivial solution of the system of differential equation exist only when
  • det(X-λI)=0
  • det(A-λI)≠0
  • det(A+λI)=0
  • det(A-λI)=0
2. Vectors
( -1 ) and ( 2 ) are linearly ___
0 0

  • Dependent
  • Independent
3.
[ b11 ] is a
b21
  • Row matrix
  • column matrix
4. Vectors
( -2 ) and ( -66 ) are linearly ___
3 99
  • Dependent
  • Independent
5. Matrix form of the following system of non-homogenous differential equations is
dy/dx = -2x +4y + et -4t
dy/dx = 3x-4y+11t
  • X' = [ -2  4 ] [ x ] + [ 1 ]et + [ -4 ]t
    3 -4 y 0 11
6. If A is a m X n matrix and A=AT which of the following must always be true?
  • m ≠ n
  • m = n
7. A matrix is defined as
A = [ a  b ], k is a constant then
c  d
  • A = kA
  • Ak = kA
  • -Ak = Ak
  • Ak ≠ kA
8. If
K = [ 1 ]
-1
is an eigenvector of the given matrix
A = [ 1  0 ] then AK is
0  1

  • 1K
  • -1K
  • 1
  • -1
9. Let
A = [ a  b ] and B = [ u v ] then A + B is
c  d x y
  • A + B = [ a + u   b + v ]
    c + x   d + y
10. The equation form of a non-homogenous system of differential equations
X' = [ -2  4 ] [ x ] + [ 1 ]et + [ -4 ]t
3 -4 y 0 11
  • X' = -2x + 4y + et - 4t,     X' = 3x - 4y + 11t

Sunday, 22 March 2020

CS605-Software Engineering 2 Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS605-Software Engineering II Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a ___ technique for assessing the progress of a project
  • Qualitative
  • Quantitative
  • Subjective
  • None
2. The basic idea behind Software configuration management is:
  • To manage and control the change
  • To efficiently allocate the resources
  • To properly manage status reporting
  • None
3. Following are effective guidelines for Review EXCEPT
  • We need to review the product, not the producer
  • Be sensitive to personal egos
  • Errors should be pointed out gently
  • Tone should be high and strict
4. if :
E = Errors found before shipment
D = Errors found during operation
Then Defect Removal Efficiency (DRE) is equal to:
  • DRE = E + (E+D)
  • DRE = E-(E+D)
  • DRE = E*(E+D)
  • DRE = E/(E+D)
5. In order to use the PERT and CPM, which one of the following is NOT required?
  • Decomposition of tasks - also known as the work breakdown structure (WBS)
  • Teams communication mode details
  • Estimation of effort
  • Interdependencies
6. If an error related to requirements is identified in testing phase, this error will be considered as an error of ___ phase
  • Requirement
  • Design
  • Code
  • Testing
7. Quality cost may be delivered into costs associated with:
  • Prevention, appraisal and failure
  • Customers, developers and maintenace
  • Builds, releases and products
  • Bugs, errors and reports
8. Poka-Yoke is the name of a
  • QA technique
  • Japanese dish
  • Idiom
  •  None
9. Configuration Auditing deals with:
  • Ensuring that Resources have been allocated properly
  • Ensuring that changes are implemented parallel with SDLC framework activities
  • Ensuring that the changes have been implemented properly
  • All of the given
10. FTR stands for:
  • Feasibility of technical requirement
  • Fetched Technical Requirement
  • Formal Technical Review
  • None 
11. A Software Requirement Specification is traced if the ___ of its requirements is clear.
  • Quality
  • Slandered
  • Origin
  • None
12. Version Control discusses about:
  • How does an organization control changes before and after software is released to a customer
  • How the resources will be assigned to tasks in work breakdown structure (WBS)
  • How the test cases will be executed before deploying each release.
  • All of given
13. The implemented requirement has been ___ through the selected approach, such as testing or inspection.
  • Verified
  • Deleted
  • Approved
  • None
14. The Software reengineering is a ___ activity.
  • Code
  • Out dated
  • Document
  • Non-trivial
15. Which of the following is NOT an example of Software Configuration Item (SCI):
  • Test Case
  • Integration Plan
  • Design specification
  • None
16. Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) can be calculated by:
  • MTBF = MTTF + MTTR
  • MTBF = MTTF - MTTR
  • MTBF = (MTTF/MTTR)*100
  • MTBF = (MTTR/MTTF)*100
17. ___ software development is itself risky as changes to one part of the system inevitably involve further changes to other components.
  • Forward
  • Reverse
  • Old
  • New
18. Program is restructured ___ the reverse engineering phase. In this case we modify source code and data in order to make it amenable to future changes.
  • After
  • None
  • Along with
  • Before
19. ___ Managers look at the system from the angle that does the system and associated business process make an effective contribution to the business goal?
  • Senior
  • IT
  • None
  • Line
20. ___ user assess the system from the perspective of how effective do they find the system in supporting their business processes and how much of the system functionality is used.
  • Senior
  • IT
  • Line
  • End
21. A system is considered to be a legacy system if it has been in operation for ___ years. A legacy system has many components.
  • Less than seven
  • Many
  • More than two
  • Less than ten
22. Legacy system migration, however, is an easy task and there are a number of risks involved that need to be mitigated
  • Simple
  • Crucial
  • None
  • Easy
23. ___ engineering does not simply create a modern equivalent of an older program, rather new user and technology requirements are integrated into the reengineering effort
  • Forward
  • None
  • Reverse
  • BPR
24. Which of the following the NOT one of the attributes of requirements.
  • Requirement ID
  • Creation Date
  • Created By
  • Received By
25. If the version of a release changes from 1.0.0 to 2.0.0 what will you conclude about new release (having version 2.0.0)
  • There was no change in functionality
  • There was major change in functionality
  • There was partial change in functionality 
  • Bugs in previous functionality were removed
26. Which of the following is NOT one of the tasks included in Software Configuration Management.
  • Version Control
  • Configuration Auditing
  • Test Case develoment
  • Change control

MTH501-Linear Algebra Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


MTH501-Linear Algebra Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. Which of the following system will have a trivial solution?
  • x = y = 1
  • x = 1, y = 0
  • x = 0, y = 1
  • x = y = 0
2.
( cosΘ sinΘ )-1=
-sinΘ cosΘ
  • ( cosΘ sinΘ )
    -sinΘ cosΘ
  • ( -cosΘ sinΘ )
    sinΘ cosΘ
  • ( cosΘ sinΘ )
    sinΘ -cosΘ
  • ( cosΘ -sinΘ )
    sinΘ cosΘ
3. The system of equations:
x1=0=x2
can be expressed in the form
  • Ax=0
  • Ax=b
  • Ax=0, By=1
  • Ax=1, By=0
4. Which of the following is Row - Equivalent of
( 3 4 )?
1 2

  • ( 2 -4 )
    -1 3
  • ( 3 1 )
    4 2
  • ( 4 3 )
    2 1
  • ( 1 2 )
    3 4
5. The system of equations : y=0 and x=5 has ___ solution(s).
  • No
  • Unique
  • Infinite many
  • distinct multiple
6. The equation : 0x-0y=-5 has ___ solution(s)
  • No
  • Unique
  • Infinite many
  • distinct finite
7. Which of the following is an example of Matrix in reduced Echelon form?
  • ( 0 1 )
    1 0
  • ( 0 0 )
    1 1
  • ( 1 0 )
    0 1
  • ( 0 1 )
    0 1
8. Under which of the following condition, a system of Linear Equations whose Row-Reduce form is
( 1 2 | -1 )
0 0 h-3k
has Infinite many solutions?
  • h=3k
  • h ≠ 3k
  • (h,k) = (0,0)
  • (h,k) ≠(0,0)
9. For the following system of Equation:
x+2y = 0, 2x-y=0;
the solution set is ___
  • Real line ℝ
  • Line through origin in ℝ2
  • Line through origin in ℝ3
  • Any orbitrary line in ℝ2
10.Set
{ ( 1 ) , ( 0 ) } is Linearly ___ in ℝ2
2 0

  • Independent
  • Dependent
11. The value of x satisfying the equation:
| x  2 | = x | 5  -2 |, is
3  -1 3  -1
  • -3
  • 3
  • 6
  • -6
12. Which of the following would be the value of t, if
[ 2e-3t ] = [ 2 ]?
5e-3t 5
  • ∓1/3 
  • 2/5 
  • zero
13. Which of the following corresponding Matrix form of the Linear equation x+y=3?
  • x ( 1 ) + y ( 0 ) = 3 ( 1 )
    0 1 0
  • x ( 1 ) + y ( 0 ) = 3 ( 0 )
    0 1 1
  • x |1| + y |1| = 3 |1|
  • can't be expressed in Matrix form
14. Vectors
( -2 ) and ( -66 )
3 99
are linearly?
  • Dependent
  • Independent
15. Which of the following is true about the existence of free variables (parameter) in a system of Linear Equations?
  • They guarantee the Consistency
  • They guarantee the inconsistency
  • They do not guarantee the consistency
  • None
16. Slope and y-intercept of the line: 2x+3y=-1 ___ respectively
  • -2/3 and -1/3
  • 2/3 and -1/3
  • -2/3 and 1/3
  • 2/3 and 1/3
17. The equation 0x-0y=0 has ___ solution(s).
  • No 
  • Unique
  • Infinite many
  • multiple finite

CS502-Fundamentals of Algorithms Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS502-Fundamentals of Auditing Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. There are no ___ edges in an undirected graph.
  • Forward
  • Back
  • Cross
  • Both forward and back
2. Those problems in which Greedy finds good, but not always best is called a greedy
  • Algorithm
  • Solution
  • Heuristic
  • Result
3. For an undirected graph, there is no distinction between forward and back adges.
  • True
  • False
4. Counting money problem:
  • can be optimally solved by greedy algorithm
  • cannot be optimally solved by greedy algorithm
  • cannot be solved by brute force algorithm
  • All of the given
5. You have an adjacency list for G, what is the time complexity to compute Graph transpose G^T?
  • (V+E)
  • V.E
  • V
  • E
6. Networks are ___ in the sense that it is possible from any location in the network to reach any other location in the digraph.
  • complete
  • incomplete
  • not graphs
  • transportation
7. Graph is not a good way to model some sort of "connection" or "relationship" or "interaction" between pairs of objects taken from a set of objects
  • True
  • False
8. In computing the strongly connected components of a digraph, vertices of the digraph are not partitioned into subsets
  • True
  • False
9. In general, the Activity Selection Problem is to select a ___
  • Minimum -size set of interfering activities
  • Maximum-size set of mutually non-interfering activities
  • Maximum-size set of interfering activities
  • Minimum-size set of mutually non-interfering activities
10. Which is a true statement in the following?
  • Kruskal algorithm is a multiple source technique for finding MST
  • Kruskal's algorithm is used to find the minimum spanning tree of a graph, time complexity of this algorithm is O(EV)
  • Both of the above
  • Kruskal's algorithm (choose best non-cycle edge) is better than Prim's (choose best Tree edge) when the graph has relatively few edges.

CS502-Fundamentals of Algorithms Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS502-Fundamentals of Auditing Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. While solving Selection problem, in Sieve technique we partition input data ___
  • in increasing order
  • in decreasing order
  • according to Pivot
  • randomly
2. In Selection problem, the Sieve technique works in ___
  • Non-recursive manner
  • constant time
  • phases
  • one complete go
3. While analyzing Selection algorithm, we make a number of phases, in fact it could be as many as ___
  • n(n+1)
  • log(n)
  • n/3
  • n/4
4. In the statement "output P[i].x, P[i].y", the number of times elements of P are accessed is ___
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
5. In Heap Sort algorithm, Heapify procedure is ___ in nature
  • Recursive
  • Non-recursive
6. The O-notation is used to state only the asymptotic ___ bounds
  • two
  • lower
  • upper
  • both lower and upper
7. The time assumed for each basic operation to execute on RAM model of computation is ___
  • infinite
  • continuous
  • constant
  • variable
8. The iteration method is used for ___
  • comparing sorting algorithms only
  • solving recurrence relations
  • merging elements in Merge sort
  •  Dividing elements in Merge sort
9. Efficient algorithm requires less computational ___
  • memory
  • running time
  • memory and running time
  • energy
10. In plane sweep approach, a vertical line is swept across the 2d-plane from ___
  • right to left
  • left to right
  • top to bottom
  • bottom to top
11. Counting sort is suitable for sorting the elements within range 1 to P, where ___
  • P is large
  • P is small
  • P is very large
  • P is undetermined
12. In Dynamic Programming based solution of the knapsack problem, to compute entries of 'V'. we will imply a(n)___ approach
  • Subjective
  • Inductive
  • Brute Force
  • Combination
13. We can make ___ recursive calls in Fibonacci Sequence
  • Infinite
  • Finite
14. In Quick sort algorithm, ___ decides nature of Binary Search Tree formed by Pivots.
  • No one
  • Smallest element from input
  • Rank of the input
  • Largest element from input
15. In Dynamic Programming approach, solution is modified/changed ___
  • Always once
  • At each stage
  • Only for specific problems
  • At the 4th stage only
16. Radix sort performs sorting the numbers ___ digit(s) at a time
  • one
  • two
  • three
  • all
17. In the Fibonacci sequence, each term is calculated by ___ previous ___ terms.
  • Subtracting, two
  • Adding, two
  • Adding, three
  • Multiplying, two
18. ___ is a linear time sorting algorithm
  • Merge sort
  • Radix sort
  • Quicksort
  • Bubble sort
19. A sorting algorithm is called as ___ if duplicate elements remain in the same relative position after sorting.
  • Parallel
  • O(n) algorithm
  • Stable
  • Complex
20. For comparison-based sorting algorithms, it is ___ possible to sort more efficiently than Omega nlog(n) time
  • Always
  • Not
  • Sometimes
  • Sometimes not
21. In ___ Knapsack problem, the limitation is that an item can either be put in the bag or not. Fractional items are not allowed.
  • 0
  • 1
  • 0/1
  • Fractional
22. We do not need to mathematically prove that for comparison-based sorting algorithms always takes Omega nlog(n) time.
  • True
  • False
23. Identify the TRUE statement
  • The Knapsack problem does not belong to the domain of optimization problems
  • The Knapsack problem belongs to the domain of optimization problems
  • The Knapsack problem can not be solved by using dynamic programming
  • The Knapsack problem is optimally solved by using a brute force algorithm
24. Radix sort is not a non-comparative sorting algorithm
  • True
  • False
25. Dynamic Programming strategy is useful when sub-problems are independent
  • True 
  • False
26. For average-case time analysis of Quicksort algorithm, Pivot selection is on an average basis from ___
  • half of the input values
  • all possible random values
  • Pivot is input separately
  • values greater than 5
27. Bubble sort is not an in-place sorting algorithm
  • True
  • False
28. In Fibonacci Sequence, unnecessary repetitions do not exist at all.
  • True
  • False
29. In a strong components algorithm, the form of graph is used in which all the ___ of original graph G have been reversed in direction.
  • Vertices
  • Edges
  • Both edges and vertices
  • None
30. Traversing a graph means visiting ___ in the graph.
  • no node
  • at least one
  • more than one node
  • every node

PHY301-Circuit Theory Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


PHY301-Circuit Theory Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. To which of the winding of transformer alternating voltage is applied
  • primary winding
  • secondary winding
2. A transformer will be out of phase when
  • output voltage is 0 degree out of phase with input voltage
  • output voltage is 180 degree out of phase with input voltage
  • output voltage is 360 degree out of phase with input voltage
  • output voltage is same as input voltage
3. For secondary turns of 10 and primary turns of 20, the turn ratio is
  • 20:20
  • 10:20
  • 10:10
  • 20:10
4. which relation is true for transformer primary and secondary power
  • V1V2=I1I2
  • V2I2=V1I1
  • V2I1=V1I2
  • I2I1=V2V1
5. For I-V curve of a diode, a changing current from 20 mA to 10mA and voltage from 0.72v to 0.78v, cause AC resistance of value
  • 8 ohms
  • 6ohms
  • 1.66 ohms
  • none
6. Thermal ionization in semiconductor results creating of
  • only free electrons
  • only holes
  • both free electrons and holes
  • nothing
7. When germanium crystal is doped with a phosphorus atom, it becomes
  • P-type semiconductor
  • N-type semiconductor
  • Insulator
  • photo-transistor
8. A transformer has turn ratio 5 and the secondary voltage is 10v, the primary voltage is
  • 25v
  • 2v
  • 0.5v
  •  100
9. Addition of impurities in semiconductor material to produce more current is called
  • intrinsic
  • dopping
  • bonding
  • excitation
10. For forward biased condition of P-N junction
  • +Ve polarity to N electrode and -Ve polarity to P electrode
  • +Ve polarity to both N and P electrode 
  • +Ve polarity to P electrode and -Ve polarity to N electrode
  • -Ve polarity to both N and P electrode

PHY301-Circuit Theory Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


PHY301-Circuit Theory Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. Three resistances of values 7 ohms, 5 ohms, and 2 ohms are connected in series of a voltage source. Through which resistance least current will flow.
  • 7 ohms
  • 5 ohms
  • 2 ohms
  • same through all resistances
2. What is the electron valence of an element of atomic number 5?
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
3. The closed path for flow of current in which no node is encountered more than once is called
  • node
  • loop
  • branch
  • super node
4. Current through open circuit is:
  • high
  • minimum
  • zero
  • infinite
5. When one resistance in a series string is open
  • The current is maximum in the normal resistances
  • The current is zero in all resistances
  • The voltage is zero across the open resistance
  • The current increases in voltage source
6. A voltage divider is also called as
  • Current divider
  • Potential divider
  • Voltage regulator
  • Current regulator
7. When placed together, a positively charged material and a negatively charged material will
  • repel
  • become neutral
  • attract
  • exchange charges
8. Which one of the following components in the circuit is used to produce heat or limiting amount of current?
  • capacitor
  • resistor
  • inductor
  •  loop
9. Junction of two or more than two elements in a circuit is called
  •  loop
  • ground
  • node
  • joint
10. Usually, KVL OR KCL equation is not written for
  • Ordinary node
  • reference node
  • super node
  • second node
11. The internal resistance of an ideal voltage source is
  • Maximum
  • one half of external resistance
  • Zero
  • infinity
12. Distance or link between two nodes is called
  • branch
  • loop
  • node
  • super node
13. Unit of inductance is
  • mho
  • ohm
  • Henry
  • Farad
14. When two resistances are connected in series
  • both must have the same resistance value
  • both must have a different resistance value
  • the voltage across each must be the same
  • there is only one path for current for both resistances
15. Electron orbits are called
  • shells
  • nuclei
  • waves
  • valences

Saturday, 21 March 2020

CS602-Computer Graphics Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS602-Computer Graphics Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. The ___tests are performed for the midpoints between pixels near the circle path at each sampling step.
  • Parabola function
  • Eclipse function
  • Circle function
  • Line function
2. A ___ is the set of all points (x, y) that are the same distance from the directrix and focus not on the directrix.
  • Circle
  • Hyperbola
  • Parabola
  • Ellipse
3. Both Boundary Filling and Flood filling algorithms are non-recursive techniques.
  • True
  • False
4. In ___ algorithm(s), old color must be read before it is invoked.
  • Scan line filling
  • Flood filling
  • Both Scan line and flood filling
  • Scan filling
5. Both Boundary Filling and Flood filling algorithms are ___ as compared to scan line filling algorithm.
  • Better
  • Worse
  • Almost same
  • Good
6. ___ is used for the circumference of a circle.
  • 2*r
  • 2*pi*c
  • 2*pi
  • None
7. If a line connecting any two points within a polygon does not intersect any edge, then it will be a ___
  • Convex
  • Concave
  • Complex
  • Concave and Complex
8. ___ is the set of points that are equidistant from its origin.
  • Line
  • Parabola
  • Circle
  •  Ellipse
9. We can draw the circle using ___
  • Pentane
  • Hexanes
  • Trident
  • Octants
10. Parity is a concept used to determine which ___ lie within a polygon.
  • Edge
  • Vertices
  • Pixels
  • Points
11. Locations can be translated or "transformed" from one coordinate system to the other.
  • True
  • False
12. A two-dimensional rotation is applied to an object by repositioning it along a ___ path in the XY plane
  • Straight
  • Circular
  • Oval
  • Ellipse
13. In 2D transformation, ___ can be achieved by rotating the object about 180 degrees.
  • Translation
  • Scaling
  • Shear
  • Reflection
14. The shortcoming of the Sutherland-Hodgeman Algorithm is concave polygons may be displayed with extensors lines.
  • True
  • False
15. The process of subdivision an entity or surface into one or more non-overlapping primitives.
  • Rendering
  • Modeling
  • Meshing
  • None
16. In Trivial acceptance/reject test there are four bits of nine regions, Bit2 represents condition ___
  • Outside half plane of left edge, to the left of left edge X<Xmin
  • Outside half plane of right edge, to the right of right edge X>Xmax
  • Outside half plane of bottom edge, below bottom edge Y<Ymin
  • Outside half plane of top edge, above top edge Y>Ymax
17. In 2D transformation, two successive rotations can be performed in any order (rotation 1 then rotation 2 or rotation 2 then rotation 1)
  • True
  • False
18. In Trivial acceptance/reject test there are four bits of nine regions, Bit4 represents condition ___
  • Outside half plane of left edge, to the left of left edge X<Xmin
  • Outside half plane of right edge, to the right of right edge X>Xmax
  • Outside half plane of bottom edge, below bottom edge Y<Ymin
  • Outside half plane of top edge, above top edge Y>Ymax
19. ___ is the process of describing an object or scene so that we can construct an image of it.
  • Rendering
  • Modeling
  • Meshing
  • None 
20. Sutherland-Hodgeman clipping algorithm clips any polygon against a concave clip polygon
  • True
  • False

Thursday, 19 March 2020

CS402-Theory of Automata Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS402-Theory of Automata Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. Set of all palindromes over {a, b} is:
  • Regular
  • Regular and finite
  • Regular and infinite
  • Non-regular
2. The unit production is ___
  • Terminal->Terminal
  • Terminal->Non Terminal
  • Non terminal->Terminal
  • Non terminal->Non Terminal
3. Which of the following cannot be represented by a regular expression?
  • String of 0's with an odd length
  • String of 0's with a prime length
  • Language of even-even
  • Language of odd-odd
4. If R is regular language and Q is any language (regular/non-regular), then Pref(___in ___) is regular.
  • Q, Q
  • Q, R
  • R, Q
  • R, R
5. If an FA accepts a word then there must exist a path from ___
  • Initial to final state
  • Initial to each state
  • Initial to each state but not to final state
  • Initial to final state by traversing each state
6. a^n b^n generates the ___ language
  • regular
  • non regular
  • EQUAL and non regular
  • EQUAL and regular
7. A language ending with 'b' partitions Σ* into ___ distinct classes.
  • three
  • four
  • two
  • five
8. Which of the following refers to the set of strings of letters that when concatenated to the front of some word in Q produces some word in R?
  • Postf(R in Q)
  • Postf(Q in R)
  • Pref(Q in R)
  • Pref(R in Q)
9. The CFG is said to be ambiguous if there exist at least one word of its language that can be generated by ___ production trees.
  • one
  • two
  • more than one
  • at most one
10. A problem that has decision procedure is called ___ problem
  • Regular language
  • un-decidable
  • infinite
  • decidable
11. The language  "PRIME" is an example of ___ language.
  • regular but finite
  • regular
  • non regular but finite
  • non regular
12. There is at least one production in CFG that has one___ on its left side.
  • terminal
  • null production
  • unit production
  • non terminal
13. For a non regular language, there exists ___ FA
  • one
  • at least one
  • at most one
  • no
14. Consider the following CFG:
S->a|Xb|aYa
X->Y|^   (NOTE: ^means NULL)
Y->b|X
Which Non-terminal(s) is/are NOT nullable?
  • S
  • X
  • Y
  • S, X, and Y
15. One language can have ___ CFG(s)
  • Only one
  • At least one
  • More than one
  • At most one
16. If L1 and L2 are two regular languages, then they ___ expressed by FAs.
  • cannot be
  • maybe
  • can be
  • may or may not be
17. In a CFG, the non-terminals are denoted by ___
  • small letters
  • numbers
  • capital letters
  • small letters and numbers
18. If the FA has N states, then test the words of length less than N. If no word is accepted by this FA, then it will ___ word/words.
  • accept all
  • accept no
  • accept some
  • reject no

CS402-Theory of Automata Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS402-Theory of Automata Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. The state where there is no way to leave after the entry is called ___
  • Davey John locker
  • initial state
  • final state
  • non-final state
2. The recursive method for defining a language has ___ steps.
  • one
  • two
  • three
  • four
3. Let S={aa, bb}, then S* will have the ___ string.
  • ^
  • abba
  • aabbbaa
  • bbaab
4. The language of all strings defined over alphabet set = {a, b} that does not end with 'a' actually ends with:
  • b
  • b and ^
  • ^
  • ^ and a
5. a(a+b*b+b(a+b*a)) is the RE of language defined over Σ={a, b} is ___
  • starting with a and ending in b or starting with b and ending in a
  • starting with a and ending in b
  • starting with b and ending in a
  • starting with a and ending in a
6. Let S = {a, bb, bab, baabb} be a set of strings, which one of the following will not be included in S*?
  • baba
  • baabbabb
  • bbaaabb
  • bbbaabaabb
7. Which of the following regular expressions represent same language?
1. (a+ab)*
2. (ba+a)*
3. a*(aa*b)*
4. (a*b*)*
  • 1 and 2
  • 1 and 3
  • 3 and 4
  • 1 and 4
8. According to theory of automata there are ___ types of languages.
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  •  Four
9. Kleen's Theorem Part III expresses the relationship between ___
  • FA and TG
  • TG and RE
  • RE and FA
  • FA and RE
10. Kleene's Theorem Part II expresses the relationship between ___
  • FA and TG
  • TG and RE
  • RE and FA
  • FA and RE
11. In case of finite automation there ___ be a transaction on each ___ for every letter of the alphabet set.
  • must, state
  • may be, state
  • often, edge
  • must, edge
12. Which of the following is the minimal number of states for a finite automation accepting the language of all strings defined over any alphabet set?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
13. Two FAs are said to be equivalent if they ___
  • accept null string
  • accept the same language
  • accept different language
  • None
14. The length of the string "AbBAbcd" defined over Σ= {Ab, B, c, d} is ___
  • three
  • four
  • five
  • six
15. The language of all strings defined over alphabet set = {x, y} having triple x's or triple y's will have the minimum strings with length of:
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
16. For every three regular expressions R, S, and T, the languages denoted by R(S U T) and (RS) U (RT) are the ___
  • same
  • different
  • R(S U T) is Greater
  • None
17. How many types of machines exist, generating output for specific input?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
18. In the context of make NFA for the concatenation of FA1 and FA2 (FA2 accepting null string), which of the following option is correct?
  • Initial states in both FAs
  • FA2 having initial state only
  • Final states in both FAs
  • FA2 having final states only
19. Let L be the language of all strings, defined over Σ = {0,1}, ending in 10. Which of the following strings are indistinguishable with respect to L with z being 0?
  • 100, 101
  • 111, 101
  • 110, 101
  • 010, 101
20. While developing NFA for the union of FA1 and FA2, if there is a loop of 'a' at the initial state of FA1 then the new initial state will have a transition for 'a' that goes straight to:
  • the initial state of FA1
  • the initial state of FA1*FA1
  • the initial state of FA2
  • the final state of FA1 
21. The language {a, ab, aba, bab} is ___
  • regular
  • recursive
  • infinite
  • irregular
22. In NFA, if null word (lambda) is allowed to be a label of an edge, then that NFA is called ___
  • NFA with one string
  • NFA with two strings
  • NFA without null string
  • NFA with null string
23. If we have an NFA having 3 states, and we convert that NFA to an FA. The resultant FA will contain ___ states.
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
24. FA corresponding to an NFA can be built by introducing a state corresponding to the combination of states, for a letter having
  • no transition at certain state
  • one transition at certain state
  • more than one transitions at certain state
  • None
25. How many new states are introduced while developing NFA for the closure of an FA?
  • one
  • two
  • three
  • four
26. Suppose we have the regular expression:
aa(a+b+c)*bb(a+b+c)*cc
Which of the following will not be generated by the given RE?
  • aabbcc
  • aaabcbbcbacc
  • aaabbbbccc
  • aaaabbccbc
27. If r1 = (aa + bb) and r2 = (a + b) then the language (aa+bb)(a+b) will be generated by ___

  • (r1)(r2)
  • (r1+r2)
  • (r2)(r1)
  • (r1)*

28. Suppose we have an alphabet set having four symbols, how many transitions will be there on each state of a finite automation for any language defined over the given alphabet?

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4

29. FA is also called

  • TG
  • GTG
  • NFA
  • DFA

30. If S={a}, then S+ will be ___

  • {a, aaa, aaaa, aaaaa, ...}
  • {a, aa, aaa, aaaa, ...}
  • {a, aaa, aaaaa, aaaaaaa, ...}
  • {aa, aaaa, aaaaaa, aaaaaaaa, ...}

31. There can be more than ___ FA for a certain language but for ___ FA there is only one language associated with it.

  • one, one
  • one, two
  • two, three
  • two, one

32. When ODD language is expressed by an FA, then it will have minimum ___ states.

  • one
  • two
  • three
  • four

33. Which of the following statement is NOT true about TG?

  • There exists exactly one path for certain string
  • There may exist more than one paths for certain string
  • There may exist no path for certain string
  • There may be no final state

34. Consider the following RE:
a(a+b)b*
All of the following words are accepted except ___

  • aab
  • abb
  • aa
  • aaa

35. If an FA has 3 states and 2 letters in the alphabet, then it will have ___ number of transitions

  • 4
  • 5
  • 6
  • 7

36. Which of the following statement is true about GTG?

  • Transitions are based on input letters
  • Transitions are based on specified substrings
  • Transitions are based on regular expressions
  • Transitions are based on alphabet set

37. Length of EVEN-EVEN language is ___

  • Even
  • Odd
  • Sometimes even & sometimes odd
  • Such language does not exist

38. The language having even number of a's and even number of b's defined over S = {a, b} is called ___

  • EVEN-EVEN
  • ODD-ODD
  • PALINDROME
  • FACTORIAL

39. Which of the following diagram is very rigid in order to express any language?

  • TG
  • NFA
  • GTG
  • FA

40. Which one of the following is the RE for the language defined over Σ = {a, b} having all the words starting with a?

  • (a+b)*
  • aa(a+b)+
  • a(a+b)*
  • a*(a+b)

41. Which one of the following string is a part of EQUAL language?

  • aabbba
  • babab
  • ababab
  • aabbaa

42. Keeping in view the language of all strings ending with 'a', for which symbol we will take a loop on the final state of its transition diagram?

  • a
  • b
  • c
  • d

43. Which is false about the PALINDROME LANGUAGE?

  • Every word is reverse of itself
  • It is an infinite language
  • FA can be build for it
  • None 

44. The FA can be drawn for the regular expression (a+b)* with minimum ___ state(s)

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4

45. How many states of a finite automation will be final for accepting L = {^, b, bb, bbb}?

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4

46. FA stands for ___

  • Finite Auotomation
  • Fixed Automation
  • False Automation
  • Functional Automation 

47. Which of the following string belongs to the language of the regular expression (aa*b)*?

  • baabab
  • abbbaa
  • aaaaaa
  • aabaab

48. What is false about the term alphabet?

  • It is a finite set of symbols
  • It is usually denoted by Greek letter sigma
  • It can be an empty set
  • Strings are made up of its elements

49. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

  • FA can be considered to be an NFA
  • FA can be considered to be an NFA with null string
  • NFA can be considered to be a TG
  • TG can be considered to be an NFA

50. We can create an equivalent ___ for a language for which we create an ___

  • FA, NFA
  • NFA, FA
  • FA, GTG
  • None

51. In which of the following machine, the length of output string is the same to that of input string?

  • Moore machine
  • Finite automation with output
  • Mealy machine
  • Non-deterministic finite automation

52. A ___ with "n" states must accept at least one string of length greater than "n"

  • DFA
  • RE
  • Irregular language
  • Irrelevant languge

53. While developing NFA for the union of FA1 and FA2, there will be ___ transition/transitions for both 'a' and 'b' on the new initial state.

  • Single
  • Only one
  • Only three
  • Multiple

54. Keeping in view the discussion by Martin, how many states are required to recognize the language of all strings defined over Σ = {a, b}, with 'b' being the second letter from right?

  • 6
  • 7
  • 8
  • 9
55. In order to make NFA for the union of FA1 and FA2, the final state/states of:
  • both FAs should be linked
  • FA1 have a transition to the final state of FA2
  • both FAs should be left intact
  • FA2 have a transition to the final state FA1
56. FA corresponding to an NFA can be built by introducing an empty state for a letter having
  • no transition at certain state
  • one transition at certain state
  • two transitions at certain state
  • more than two transitions at certain state
57. If we have only one state, having no transition for input letters, then i is an example of:
  • RE
  • FA
  • TG
  • NFA
58. In the context of make NFA for the concatenation of FA1 and FA2 (FA1 accepting null string), which of the following option is correct?
  • Initial states in both FAs
  • FA2 having initial state only
  • FA2 havig final state only
  • Final states in both FAs
59. In which of the following machine, the length of output string is 1 more than that of input string?
  • Mealy machine
  • Moore machine
  • Finite automation with output
  • Non-deterministic finite automation
60. An ___ can be considered to be an intermediate structure between Finite automation and Trnsition Graph.    
  • RE
  • GTG
  • NFA
  • None
61. We cannot construct an NFA for the language of ___ defined over alphabet set {a, b}
  • Even Even
  • Odd
  • Palindromes
  • Integers
62. The language of all strings defined over Alphabet set = {x, y} that ends with same letter will have the maximum length of :
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • infinite
63. Reverse of string "BcAbed" defined over = {Ab, Bc, d, e} is ___
  • debABc
  • deAbBc
  • deAbcB
  • debAcB
64. If two RE's generate same language then these RE's are called ___
  • Same RE
  • Equal RE
  • Similar RE
  • Equivalent RE
65. Let FA3 be an FA corresponding to FA1FA2, then the initial state of FA3 must correspond to initial state of:
  • FA1 only
  • FA2 only
  • FA1 or FA2
  • FA1 and FA2
66. If r1 and r2 are regular expressions then (r1*r2) is a/an ___
  • FA 
  • TG
  • GTG
  • Regular expression
67. Kleene's Theorem part I expresses the relationship between ___
  • FA and TG
  • TG and RE
  • RE and FA
  • FA and RE
68. In the context of make NFA for the concatenation of FA1 and FA2 (Both FAs accepting null string) which of the following option is correct?
  • Final states in both FAs
  • Initial states in both FAs
  • FA2 having initial state only
  • FA2 having final state only
69. Let L be the language of all strings, defined over = {0, 1} ending in 111. Which of the following strings are indistinguishable with respect to L with z being 11?
  • 111, 101
  • 100, 101
  • 110, 101
  • 010, 101
70. If we have a finite language and the number of states in the FA is n then the maximum number of letters in the each word of the language that will be accepted by the given FA will be:
  • 1
  • n-1
  • n+1
  • n
71. Which of the following statements is true about NFA with null string?
  • Infinite states
  • infinite set of letters
  • Infinite set of transitions
  • Transition of null string is allowed at any stage
72. Which of the following state is introduced while developing NFA for the closure of an FA?
  • Simply an initial state
  • Final state
  • An initial state which should be final as well
  • An initial state with loop for all letters
73. In order to make NFA for the union of FA1 and FA2, the new initial state should be linked to:
  • initial and final states of FA1 and FA2 respectively
  • initial states of both FAs
  • initial state of FA1 only
  • final and initial states of FA1 and FA2 respectively

CS301-Data Structures Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS301-Data Structures Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. If we want to find median of 50 elements, then after applying buildHeap method, how many times deleteMin method will be called?
  • 5
  • 25
  • 35
  • 50
2. Which of the following is NOT an implementation of Table ADT?
  • Sorted Sequential Array
  • Stack
  • Linked List
  • Skip List
3. The expression
if(!heap->isEmpty())
checks
  • Heap is empty
  • Heap is full 
  • Heap is not empty
  • Not a valid expression
4. Sorting procedure normally takes ___ time.
  • NLogN
  • 2N
  • N*N*N
  • N
5. The expression
if(!heap->isFull())
check
  • Heap is empty
  • Heap is full
  • Heap is not empty
  • Heap is not full
6. If a tree has 50 nodes, then the total edges/links in the tree will be:
  • 55
  • 51
  • 50
  • 49
7. Which of the following is NOT an open addressing technique to resolve collisions?
  • Quadratic probing
  • Double hashing
  • Cubic probing
  • Linear probing
8. given the values are the array representation of heap:
12 23 26 31 34 44 56 64 78 100
If we perform 4 deleteMin operations, the last element deleted is ___
  • 31
  • 34
  • 44
  • 56
9. What is the best definition of a collision in a hash table?
  • Two entries are identical except for their keys
  • Two entries with different data have the exact same key
  • Two entries with different keys have the same exact has value
  • Two entries with the exact same key have different hash values
10. Which of the following is true regarding the maze generation?
  • Randomly remove walls until the entrance and exit cells are in the same set
  • Removing a wall is the same as doing a union operation
  • Do not remove a randomly chosen wall if the cells it separates are already in the same set
  • All of the given

Wednesday, 18 March 2020

CS301-Data Structures Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS301-Data Structures Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. In case of insertion of a right outer node in BST.
  • we apply single left rotation to make it AVL tree
  • we apply single right rotation to make it AVL tree
  • we apply single left rotation first and then right rotation to make it AVL tree
  • we apply single right rotation first and then left rotation to make it AVL tree
2. Which one is the correct function call for the following function of calculation cube?
int cube(int& num)
{
.
.
.
  • cube(&num)
  • cube(&&num)
  • cube(*num)
  • cube(num)
3. A tree is an AVL tree if
  •  Anyone node fulfills the AVL condition
  • At least half of the nodes fulfill the AVL condition
  • All the nodes fulfill the AVL condition
  • None
4. During in-order traversal using recursive calls, if we found a node is NULL. It means this node will satisfy the following condition.
  • It will not have left child
  • It will not have the right child
  • It will not have both left and right children
  • None
5. A parse tree should be a/an
  • AVL tree
  • Heap
  • Binary Search Tree
  • Complete Binary Search Tree
6. Binary Search Tree violates the condition of AVL tree when any node has a balance equal to
  • 2 or -2
  • 1 or -1
  • 0
  • None
7. Suppose there is a BST with elements, 13,3,14,1,4,18 and 2. Now if the method insert (4) is called, which message will be displayed?
  • Node is inserted in the root
  • Node is inserted in the left subtree
  • Node is inserted in the right subtree
  • Node already exists in the tree
8. Which data structure allows deleting data elements from front and inserting at the rear?
  • Stacks
  • Queues
  • Deques
  •  Binary search tree
9. In which of the following function signatures, the value of variable "num" can not be changed in a function body?
  • int cube(int num)
  • int cube(int& num)
  • int cube(const int& num)
  • int cube(int* num)
10. In-order traversal method traverses the data in
  • Non-sorted order
  • Random order
  • Sorted order
  • None

CS610-Computer Networking Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS610-Computer Networking Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. Postfix defines how much of an address used to identify the network.
  • True
  • False ✔
2. ___ is a technique used to Limit datagram size to small MTU of any network.
  • Segmentation
  • Fragmentation ✔
  • Encapsulation
  • None
3. The address ___ identifies the physical network to which the computer is attached, while the ___ identifies an individual computer on that network.
  • prefix, suffix ✔
  • suffix, prefix
  • suffix, suffix
  • None
4. ___ layer provides reliable delivery of datagram.
  • Network
  • Transport ✔
  • Datalink
  • None
5. Routers use ___ to forward datagrams along a prearranged path.
  • Flow label ✔
  • Destination address
  • Traffic class
  • None
6. One of the parameters, which motivated IP for change is address space. The ___ address space allows for over a million networks. But most networks are class C and too small for many organizations.
  • 32-bit ✔
  • 128-bit
  • 16-bit
  • 64-bit
7. Inside a computer, each address mask is stored as a ___-bit value.
  • 48
  • 64
  • 16
  • 32 ✔
8. In ___, the protocol address assigned to a computer is chosen carefully so that the computer's hardware address can be computed from the protocol address using Boolean and arithmetic operations.
  • Table Lookup
  • Address Resolution
  • Message Exchange
  • Closed-form Computation ✔
9. As the internet grew, the original classfull addressing scheme became a limitation. The IP address space was being exhausted because all networks had to choose one of two possible sizes.
  • True ✔
  • False
10. ___ protocols of the TCP/IP layering model specify the format of packets sent across the internet as well as the mechanisms used to forward packets from a computer through one or more routers to a final destination.
  • Physical Layer
  • Network Interface Layer
  • Internet Layer ✔
  • Transport Layer

Friday, 13 March 2020

CS302-Digital Logic Design Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS302-DLD Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. The terminal count of a modulus-13 binary counter is:
  • 0000
  • 1111
  • 1101
  • 1100
2. In Master-Slave flip-flop setup, the master flip flop operates at ___
  • Positive half cycle of pulse
  • Negative half cycle of pulse
  • Both Master-Slave operates simultaneously
  • Master-Slave flip-flop does not operate on pulses, rather it is edge triggered
3. The ___ input overrides the ___ input
  • Asynchronous, synchronous
  • Synchronous, asynchronous
  • Preset input (PRE), Clear input (CLR)
  • Clear input (CLR), Preset input (PRE)
4. A flip-flop is connected to +5 volts and it draws 5 mA of current during its operation, the power of dissipation of the flip -flop is:
  • 10mW
  • 25mW
  • 64mW
  • 1024mW
5. With a 100KHz clock frequency, eight bits can be serially entered into a shift register in
  • 80 micro seconds
  • 8 micro seconds
  • 80 mili seconds
  • 10 micro seconds
6. The 74HC163 is a 4-bit Synchronous Counter, it has ___ parallel data inputs pins
  • 2
  • 4
  • 6
  • 8
7. ___ Counters as the same indicates are not triggered simultaneously
  • Asynchronous
  • Synchronous
  • Positive-Edge triggered
  • Negative-Edge triggered
8. ___ is one of the examples of asynchronous inputs.
  • J-K input
  • S-R input
  • D input
  •  Clear input (CLR)
9. To write data to the memory, the write cycle is initiated by
  • applying the address signals
  • assigning the values to variables
  • reserving the space for variables
  • applying the data signals
10. ___ is one of the examples of synchronous inputs.
  • J-K input
  • EN input
  • Preset input (PRE)
  • Clear input (CLR)

CS601-Data Communication Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


CS601-Data Communication Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. EHF stands for ___
  • Extremely High Frequency
  • Emitting High Frequency
  • Emission of High Frequency
  • Exact High Frequency
2. ___ measures the relative strength of the two signals or a signal at two different points.
  • Data rate
  • Baud rate
  • Frequency
  • Decibel
3. The term ___ means that only one bit of a given data unit is changed from 1 to 0 or from 0 to 1.
  • Packet Error
  • Burst Error
  • Single Bit Error
  • Character Error
4. Telephone network is an example of a ___ network.
  • Packet-switched
  • Circuit-switched
  • Message-switched
  • Tele-switched
5. EIA 449 uses ___ standards to define its electrical specifications.
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
6. Terminal, microprocessor, computer, printer or any other device that generates or consumes digital data is known as ___
  • DCE
  • DTE
  • DCE & DTE
  • DTE & DTE
7. Traditional modems are limited to a data rate of ___ Kbps.
  • 31.6
  • 32.6
  • 33.6
  • 34.6
8. If the ASCII character G is sent and the character D is received, what type of error is this?
  • Single-bit
  • Multiple-bit
  • Burst
  •  Recoverable
9. Cable that connects the subscriber telephone to the nearest end office in a local loop is called
  • Twisted-pair cable
  • Coaxial cable
  • Fiber-optic cable
  • Subscriber cable
10. Air is ___
  • DTE
  • DCE
  • Transmission medium
  • DTE & DCE

STA301-Statistics and Probability Quiz MCQs Lecture 23-45 Finalterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


STA301-Statistics and Probability Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Finalterm

1. Which of the following is the property of hypergeometric experiment?
  • p remains constant from trial to trial
  • successive trials are independent
  • sampling is performed without replacement
  • n is not fixed
2. If the first-moment ratio is less than 0, then the distribution will be:
  • positively skewed
  • symmetrical
  • negatively skewed
  • None
3. Poisson distribution can be used to approximate the hypergeometric distribution when:
  • p>0.05
  • p<0.05
  • p>0.10
  • p<0.10
4. ___ is used when we are dealing with proportions to find the probabilities:
  • Normal distribution
  • t-distribution
  • Both Z & t distribution
  • F distribution
5. Total no. of possible samples of size 3 (with replacement) from the population of size 6, will be:
  • 256
  • 196
  • 216
  • 325
6. In sampling from a large population with sigma=20, the standard error of the mean is found to be 2. The size of the sample used is:
  • 100
  • 40
  • 10
  • 20
7. In sampling from a large population with σ=60. The size of the sample used is 100, the value of the standard error will be:
  • 4
  • 42
  • 15
  • 6
8. The number of parameters in a normal distribution is(are):
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
9. In hypergeometric distribution probability of success always:
  • is constant from trial to trial
  • varies from trial to trial 
  • sometimes varies and sometimes is constant
  • None
10. In hypergeometric distribution; experiment can be repeated a
  • fixed number of times
  • variable number of times
  • depends upon the situation
  • None
11. In a binomial experiment, the probability of success changes on
  • Each trial
  • Second trial
  • 10th trial
  • 30th trial 
12. The range of the binomial distribution is:
  • 0, 1, 2, ... , 100
  • 0, 1, 2, ..., n
  • 0, 1, 2, ..., x
  • 1, 2, ..., n
13. The number of typing errors per page in a book follows.
  • Normal Distribution
  • Poisson process
  • Binomial distribution
  • Hypergeometric distribution
14. The central limit theorem states that the mean of the sampling distribution of the means is equal to the population
  • Standard deviation
  • Standard error
  • Random error
  • Mean

STA301-Statistics and Probability Quiz MCQs Lecture 1-22 Midterm Objective Questions | SUPERSTARWEBTECH


STA301-Statistics and Probability Quiz  MCQS #Objective #Questions #Midterm

1. In how many ways, a team of 11 players can be chosen from a total of 16 players?
  • 4368
  • 2426
  • 5400
  • 2680
2. If P(A|B)=0.27 and P(A and B)=0.20, then P(B) is
  • 0.38
  • 0.29
  • 0.75
  • 0.45
3. If a box contains two red and three yellow balloons then probability of yellow balloons will be equal to:
  • 2/5
  • 1/5
  • 3/5
  • 4/5
4. When two coins are tossed the probability of at least one head is:
  • 1/4
  • 2/4
  • 3/4
  • 1
5. The probability of an event always lies between:
  • 0 and ∞
  • -1 and +1
  • 0 and 1
  • -∞ and +∞
6. In a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards, the probability of drawing a diamond card is:
  • 1/52
  • 4/52
  • 13/52
  • 52/52
7. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose product is even?
  • 1/2
  • 3/4
  • 3/8
  • 5/16
8. In simple linear regression, which of the following statement indicate there is no linear relationship between the variables x and y?
  • Coefficient of detrmination is -1.0
  • coefficient of correlation is 0
  • sum of square of errors is 0
  •  None
9. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged?
  • 360
  • 140
  • 72
  • 5040
10. Find the number of subsets of the following set.
{x|x is a day of the week}
  • 7
  • 14
  • 49
  • 128